PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. If the bond energies of H-H, Br-Br, and H-Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol-1 respectively, the ΔH° for the reaction \(\mathrm{H}_{2(g)}+\mathrm{Br}_{2(g)} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{HBr}_{(g)}\) is

  1. -261 kJ
  2. +103kJ
  3. +261 kJ
  4. -103 kJ

Answer: 4. -103 kJ

⇒ \(\begin{array}{ccc}
\mathrm{H}-\mathrm{H}+\mathrm{Br}-\mathrm{Br} & \rightarrow & 2 \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{Br} \\
433+192 & & 2 \times 364 \\
=625 & & =728
\end{array}\)

Net energy released = 728 – 625 = 103 kJ

i.e. ΔH° = – 103 kJ

Question 2. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal conditions, the correct option is

  1. \(\Delta U \neq 0, \Delta S_{\text {total }}=0\)
  2. \(\Delta U=0 \quad \Delta S_{\text {total }}=0\)
  3. \(\Delta U \neq 0, \Delta S_{\text {total }} \neq 0\)
  4. \(\Delta U=0, \Delta S_{\text {total }} \neq 0\)

Answer: 4. \(\Delta U=0, \Delta S_{\text {total }} \neq 0\)

For reversible and irreversible expansion for an ideal gas under isothermal conditions, ΔU = 0, but ΔStotal i.e., \Delta \(S_{\text {sys }}+\Delta S_{\text {Surr }}\), is not zero for an irreversible process.

Read And Learn More Class 11 Chemistry Solutions

Question 3. For the reaction, \(2 \mathrm{Cl}_{(g)} \rightarrow \mathrm{Cl}_{2(g)}\), the correct option is

  1. \(\Delta_r H>0\) and \(\Delta_r S>0\)
  2. \(\Delta_r H>0\) and \(\Delta_r S<0\)
  3. \(\Delta_r H<0\) and \(\Delta_r S>0\)
  4. \(\Delta_r H<0\) and \(\Delta_r S<0\)

Answer: 4. \(\Delta_r H<0\) and \(\Delta_r S<0\)

In the reaction, \(2 \mathrm{Cl}_{(g)} \rightarrow \mathrm{Cl}_{2(g)}\), the randomness decreases as 2 moles of \(\mathrm{Cl}_{(\mathrm{g})}\) are converted to 1 mole of \(\mathrm{Cl}_{2(g)}\), thus, \(\Delta_r S<0\).

This is an exothermic reaction, thus, \(\Delta_r H<0\).

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Question 4. In which case change in entropy is negative?

  1. \(2 \mathrm{H}_{(g)} \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_{2(g)}\)
  2. Evaporation of water
  3. Expansion of a gas at a constant temperature
  4. Sublimation of solid to gas

Answer: 1. \(2 \mathrm{H}_{(g)} \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_{2(g)}\)

If Δng < 0 then ΔS < 0

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Thermodynamics MCQs

Question 5. For a given reaction, ΔH = 35.5 kJ mol-1 and ΔS = 83.6 J K-1 mol-1. The reaction is spontaneous at (Assume that ΔH and ΔS do not vary with temperature.)

  1. T > 425 K
  2. All temperatures
  3. T > 298 K
  4. T < 425 K

Answer: 1. T > 425 K

For a spontaneous reaction, ΔG<0 i.e., ΔH – TΔS < 0

T > \(\frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S} ; T>\left(\frac{35.5 \times 1000}{83.6}=424.6\right) \approx 425 \mathrm{~K}\)

∴ T>425K

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions

Question 6. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed isothermally from pi to pj, the entropy change is given by

  1. \(\Delta S=n R \ln \left(\frac{p_f}{p_i}\right)\)
  2. \(\Delta S=n R \ln \left(\frac{p_i}{p_f}\right)\)
  3. \(\Delta S=n R T \ln \left(\frac{p_f}{p_i}\right)\)
  4. \(\Delta S=R T \ln \left(\frac{p_i}{p_f}\right)\)

Answer: 2. \(\Delta S=n R \ln \left(\frac{p_i}{p_f}\right)\)

For an ideal gas undergoing reversible expansion, when the temperature changes from Ti to Tf and pressure changes from pi to pf

∴ \(\Delta S=n C_p \ln \frac{T_f}{T_i}+n R \ln \frac{p_i}{p_f}\)

For an isothermal process, \(T_i=T_f\) so, In 1=0

∴ \(\Delta S=n R \ln \frac{p_i}{p_f}\)

Question 7. The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is

  1. ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
  2. ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
  3. ΔH < 0 and ΔS = 0
  4. ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0

Answer: 1. ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0; and 3. ΔH < 0 and ΔS = 0

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

If ΔH <0 and ΔS>0

ΔG =(-ve)-T(+ve)

then at all temperatures, ΔG = -ve, spontaneous reaction

I fΔH<0 and ΔS=0

ΔG = (-ve) – T(0) = -ve at all temperatures

Question 8. Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium. Liquid ⇔ Vapour Which of the following relations is correct?

  1. \(\frac{d \ln P}{d T^2}=\frac{-\Delta H_v}{T^2}\)
  2. \(\frac{d \ln P}{d T}=\frac{\Delta H_v}{R T^2}\)
  3. \(\frac{d \ln G}{d T^2}=\frac{\Delta H_v}{R T^2}\)
  4. \(\frac{d \ln P}{d T}=\frac{-\Delta H_v}{R T}\)

Answer: 2. \(\frac{d \ln P}{d T}=\frac{\Delta H_v}{R T^2}\)

This is Clausius-Clapeyron equation’

Question 9. Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?

  1. ΔS is negative and, therefore ΔH should be highly positive.
  2. ΔS is negative and therefore, ΔH should be highly negative.
  3. ΔS is positive and therefore, ΔH should be negative.
  4. ΔS is positive and therefore, ΔH should also be highly positive.

Answer: 2. ΔS is negative and therefore, ΔH should be highly negative.

Using Gibbs-Helmholtz equation, ΔG = ΔH- TΔS

During the adsorption of a gas, entropy decreases i.e ΔS < 0

For spontaneous adsorption, ΔG should be negative, which is possible when ΔH is highly negative.

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Thermodynamics MCQs

Question 10. For the reaction, \(\mathrm{X}_2 \mathrm{O}_{4(l)} \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{XO}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\) ΔU= 2.1 kcal, ΔS = 20 cal K-1 at 300 K Hence, ΔG is

  1. 2.7 kcal
  2. -2.7 kcal
  3. 9.3 kcal
  4. -9.3 kcal

Answer: 2. -2.7 kcal

⇒ \(\Delta H=\Delta U+\Delta n_g R T\)

Given, \(\Delta U=2.1 \mathrm{kcal}, \Delta n_g=2\)

R \(=2 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{kcal}, T=300 \mathrm{~K}\)

∴ \(\Delta H=2.1+2 \times 2 \times 10^{-3} \times 300=3.3 \mathrm{kcal}\)

Again, \(\Delta G=\Delta H-T \Delta S\)

Given, \(\Delta S=20 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{kcal} \mathrm{K}^{-1}\)

On putting the values of \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta S\) in the equation, we get

Δ\(G=3.3-300 \times 20 \times 10^{-3}\)

= \(3.3-6 \times 10^3 \times 10^{-3}=-2.7 \mathrm{kcal}\)

Question 11. A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has

  1. ΔH = 0
  2. ΔH = ΔG = ΔS = 0
  3. ΔS = 0
  4. ΔG = 0

Answer: 1. ΔH = 0

ΔH = \(\left(E_a\right)_f-\left(E_a\right)_b=0\)

Question 12. In which of the following reactions, standard reaction entropy change (ΔS°) is positive and standard Gibbs energy change (ΔG°) decrease sharply with increasing temperature?

  1. \(\mathrm{C}_{\text {(graphite) }}+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_{(g)}\)
  2. \(\mathrm{CO}_{(g)}+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_{2(g)}\)
  3. \(\mathrm{Mg}_{(s)}+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \mathrm{MgO}_{(s)}\)
  4. \(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{C}_{\text {(graphite) }}+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \frac{1}{2} \mathrm{CO}_{2(g)}\)

Answer: 1. \(\mathrm{C}_{\text {(graphite) }}+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_{(g)}\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{C}_{\text {(graphite) }}+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_{2(g)} \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_{(g)}\)

⇒ \(\Delta n_g=1-\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\)

As the amount of gaseous substance is increasing in the product side thus, \(\Delta S\) is positive for this reaction.

And we know that \(\Delta G=\Delta H-T \Delta S\)

As \(\Delta S\) is positive, thus increase in temperature will make the term \((-T \Delta S)\) more negative and \(\Delta G\) will decrease.

Question 13. The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the melting of ice at 0°C is

  1. 10.52 cal/(mol K)
  2. 21.04 cal/(mol K)
  3. 5.260 cal/(mol K)
  4. 0.526 cal/(mol K)

Answer: 3. 5.260 cal/(mol K)

⇒ \(\Delta H_{\text {fus }}=1.435 \mathrm{kcal} / \mathrm{mol}\)

⇒ \(\Delta S_{f u s}=\frac{\Delta H_{f u s}}{T_{f u s}}=\frac{1.435 \times 10^3}{273}=5.26 \mathrm{cal} /(\mathrm{mol} \mathrm{K})\)

Question 14. If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol-1 at 27°C, the entropy change for the process would be

  1. 10 J mol-1 K-1
  2. 1.0 J mol-1 K-1
  3. 0.1 J mol-1 K-1
  4. 100 J mol-1 K-1

Answer: 4. 100 J mol-1 K-1

We know that ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

0 = ΔH – TΔS ∴ (ΔG = 0 as transition of \(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_{(t)} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_{(v)}\) is at equilibrium)

∴ \(\Delta S=\frac{\Delta H}{T}=\frac{30 \times 10^3}{300}=100 \mathrm{~J} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \mathrm{~K}^{-1}\)

Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions PSEB Class 11

Question 15. Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 J K-1 mol-1 respectively. For the reaction \(1 / 2 X_2+3 / 2 Y_2 \rightleftharpoons X Y_3, \Delta H=-30 \mathrm{~kJ}\), to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be

  1. 750 K
  2. 1000 K
  3. 1250 K
  4. 500 K

Answer: 1. 750 K

Given reaction is \(\frac{1}{2} X_2+\frac{3}{2} Y_2 \rightleftharpoons X Y_3\)

We know, \(\Delta S^{\circ}=\Sigma S_{\text {products }}^{\circ}-\Sigma S_{\text {reactants }}^{\circ}\)

= \(50-\left(\frac{1}{2}(60)+\frac{3}{2}(40)\right)\)

= \(50-(30+60)=-40 \mathrm{~J} \mathrm{~K}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\)

At equilibrium \(\Delta G^{\circ}=0\) \(\Delta H^{\circ}=T \Delta S^{\circ}\)

∴ T = \(\frac{\Delta H^{\circ}}{\Delta S^{\circ}}=\frac{-30 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~J} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}{-40 \mathrm{JK}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}=750 \mathrm{~K}\)

Question 16. For the vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of ΔH and ΔS are 40.63 kJ mol-1 and 108.8 J K-1 mol-1 respectively. The temperature when Gibbs’ energy change (ΔG) for this transformation will be zero, is

  1. 273.4 K
  2. 393.4 K
  3. 373.4 K
  4. 293.4 K

Answer: 3.  373.4 K

According to Gibbs equation, ΔG = ΔH- TΔS

when ΔG=0, ΔH= TΔS

Given, ΔH = 40.63 kJ mol-1 = 40.63 x 10³ J mol-1

ΔS = 108.8 J K-1 mol-1

∴ T = \(\frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S}=\frac{40.63 \times 10^3}{108.8}=373.43 \mathrm{~K}\)

Question 17. The values of ΔH and ΔS for the reaction, \(\mathrm{C}_{\text {(graphite) }}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_{(g)}\) are 170 kJ and 170 J K-1, respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at

  1. 910 K
  2. 1110 K
  3. 510 K
  4. 710 K

Answer: 2. 1110 K

For the reaction to be spontaneous, ΔG = -ve

Given : ΔH = 170 kJ = 170 x 10³ J, ΔS = 170 J K-1

Applying, ΔG = ΔH – TΔS, the value of ΔG = -ve only when TΔS > ΔH, which is possible only when T = 1110 K

∴ ΔG = 170 x 10³ – (1110 x 170) = -18700J

Thus, the reaction is spontaneous at T = 1110 K

Question 18. For the gas phase reaction, \(\mathrm{PCl}_{5(\mathrm{~g})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{PCl}_{3(\mathrm{~g})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\) which of the following conditions are correct?

  1. ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
  2. ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0
  3. ΔH = 0 and ΔS < 0
  4. ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0

Answer: 4. ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0

Gas phase reaction, \(\begin{aligned}
& \mathrm{PCl}_{5(g)} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{PCl}_{3(g)}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \\
& \Delta H=\Delta E+\Delta n_g R T
\end{aligned}\)

Δng = Change in number of moles of products and reactants species.

Since Δng = +ve, hence ΔH = +ve also one inole of PCl5 is dissociated into two moles of PCl3 and Cl2 in the same phase.

Therefore, ΔS = SProduct– Sreactants

ΔS = +ve.

Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions PSEB Class 11

Question 19. Identify the correct statement for change of Gibbs energy for a system (ΔGsystem) at constant temperature and pressure.

  1. If ΔGsystem < 0, the process is not spontaneous.
  2. If AΔGsystem > 0, the process is spontaneous.
  3. If ΔGsystem = 0, the system has attained equilibrium.
  4. If ΔGsystem = 0, the system is still moving in a particular direction.

Answer: 3. If ΔGsystem = 0, the system has attained equilibrium.

The criteria for spontaneity of a process in terms of ΔG is as follows:

If ΔG is negative, the process is spontaneous’

If ΔG is positive, the process does not occur in the forward direction. It may occur in the backward direction

If ΔG is zero, the system is in equilibrium

Question 20. The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction: \(\mathrm{Br}_{2(l)}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(g)} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{BrCl}_{(\mathrm{g})}\) are 30 kJ mol-1 and 105 J K-1 mol-1 respectively. The temperature at which the reaction will be in equilibrium is

  1. 300 K
  2. 285.7 K
  3. 273 K
  4. 450 K

Answer: 2. 285.7 K

⇒ \(\mathrm{Br}_{2(t)}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{BrCl}_{(\mathrm{g})}\)

Δ\(H=30 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}, \Delta S=105 \mathrm{~J} \mathrm{~K}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\)

Δ\(\mathrm{S}=\frac{\Delta H}{T} \text { i.e. } 105=\frac{30}{T} \times 1000\)

∴ T = \(\frac{30 \times 1000}{105}=285.7 \mathrm{~K}\)

Question 21. Which of the following pairs of a chemical reaction is certain to result in a spontaneous reaction?

  1. Exothermic and increasing disorder
  2. Exothermic and decreasing disorder
  3. Endothermic and increasing disorder
  4. Endothermic and decreasing disorder

Answer: 1. Exothermic and increasing disorder

For spontaneous reaction, ΔH= -ve, ΔS = +ve

Spontaneity depends upon both critical minimum energy and maximum randomness disorderness.

Question 22. A reaction occurs spontaneously if

  1. TΔS < ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are +ve
  2. TΔS > ΔH and ΔH is +ve and ΔS is -ve
  3. TΔS > ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are +ve
  4. TΔS = ΔH and both ΔT and ΔS are +ve.

Answer: 3. TΔS > ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are +ve

ΔG = ΔH-TΔS

ΔG = -ve for spontaneous reaction

When ΔS = +ve, ΔH= +ve and TΔS > ΔH ⇒ ΔG = -ve

Question 23. The standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are -382.64 kJ mol-1 and -145.6 J mol-1, respectively. Standard Gibbs’ energy change for the same reaction at 298 K is

  1. -221.1 kJ mol-1
  2. -339.3 kJ mol-1
  3. -439.3 kJ mol-1
  4. -523.2 kJ mol-1

Answer: 2. -339.3 kJ mol-1

Δ\(G=\Delta H-T \Delta S\)

= \(-382.64-298\left(\frac{-145.6}{1000}\right)\)

= \(-382.64+43.38=-339.3 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\)

Question 24. Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any process is

  1. \(\Delta S_{\text {system }}+\Delta S_{\text {surroundings }}>0\)
  2. \(\Delta S_{\text {system }}-\Delta S_{\text {surroundings }}>0\)
  3. \(\Delta S_{\text {system }}>0\) only
  4. \(\Delta S_{\text {surroundings }}>0\) only.

Answer: 1. \(\Delta S_{\text {system }}+\Delta S_{\text {surroundings }}>0\)

For spontaneous process, \(\Delta S_{\text {total }}>0\).

∴ \(\Delta S_{\text {sys }}+\Delta S_{\text {surt }}>0\)

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 MCQs with Answers

Question 25. What is the entropy change (in J K-1 mol-1) when one mole of ice is converted into water at 0°C? (The enthalpy change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is 6.0 kJ mol-1 at 0°C.)

  1. 20.13
  2. 2.013
  3. 2.198
  4. 21.98

Answer: 4. 21.98

S = \(\frac{q_{\text {rev }}}{T}=\frac{6000}{273}=21.978 \mathrm{~J} \mathrm{~K}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\)

Question 26. The densities of graphite and diamond at 298 K are 2.25 and 3.31 g cm-3, respectively. If the standard free energy difference (ΔG°) is equal to 1895 J mol-1, the pressure at which graphite will be transformed into diamond at 298 K is

  1. 9.92 x 108 Pa
  2. 9.92 x 107 Pa
  3. 9.92 x 106 Pa
  4. 9.92 x 105 Pa

Answer: 1. 9.92 x 108 Pa

ΔG° = – PΔV = Work done

ΔV \(=\left(\frac{12}{3.31}-\frac{12}{2.25}\right) \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~L}=-1.71 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~L} \)

Δ\(G^{\circ}=\text { Work done }=-\left(-1.71 \times 10^{-3}\right) \times P \times 101.3 \mathrm{~J}\)

P = \(\frac{1895}{1.71 \times 10^{-3} \times 101.3}=10.93 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~atm}\)

=11.08 x 108 Pa= 9.92 x 108 pa (1 atm = 101325 pa)

Question 27. The unit of entropy is

  1. J K-1 mol-1
  2. J mol-1
  3. J-1 K-1 mol-1
  4. J K mol-1

Answer: 1. J K-1 mol-1

Entropy change \((\Delta S)\) is given by \(\Delta S=\frac{q_{r e v}}{T}\)

∴ Unit of entropy \(=\mathrm{J} \mathrm{K}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\)

Question 28. 2 moles of ideal gas at 27°C temperature is expanded reversibly from 2 lit. to 20 lit. Find entropy change. (R = 2 cal/mol K)

  1. 92.1
  2. 0
  3. 4
  4. 9.2

Answer: 4. 9.2

The change of entropy dS = \(\frac{q_{\text {rev }}}{T}\)

From the first law of thermodynamics, \(d q=d U+P d V=C_V d T+P d V\)

⇒ \(\frac{d q}{T}=C_V \frac{d T}{T}+\frac{P}{T} d V\)

⇒  \(\frac{d q}{T}=C_V \frac{d T}{T}+\frac{R d V}{V}\) (For 1mole of a gas \(\frac{P}{T}=\frac{R}{V}\))

dS = \(C_V \frac{d T}{T}+R \frac{d V}{V}\)

⇒ \(\Delta S=C_V \ln \frac{T_2}{T_1}+R \ln \frac{V_2}{V_1}\) for one mole of ideal gas

Here \(T_2=T_1=27^{\circ} \mathrm{C}=300 \mathrm{~K}\)

ln \(\frac{T_2}{T_1}=0\)

∴ \(\Delta S=R \ln \frac{V_2}{V_1}=2 \ln \frac{20}{2}=2 \ln 10=4.605\)

∴ ΔS=4.605 cal/mol K

Entropy change for 2 moles of gas = 2 x 4.605 cal/K = 9.2 cal/K

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 MCQs with Answers

Question 29. \(\mathrm{PbO}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{PbO}; \Delta G_{298}<0\) \(\mathrm{SnO}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{SnO}; \Delta G_{298}>0\) The most probable oxidation state of Pb and Sn will be

  1. Pb4+, Sn4+
  2. Pb4+, Sn2+
  3. Pb2+, Sn2+
  4. Pb2+, Sn4+

Answer: 4. Pb2+, Sn4+

The sign and magnitude of Gibbs free energy is a criterion of spontaneity for a process.

When ΔG > 0 or +ve, it means Gproducts >Greactants

as ΔG = Gproducts – Greactants

the reaction will not take place spontaneously, i.e. the reaction should be spontaneous in the reverse direction.

Thermodynamics Reverse Reaction

ΔG < 0 or -ve, the reaction or change occurs spontaneously.

Thermodynamics Negative Direction

Question 30. Cell reaction is spontaneous when

  1. ΔG° is negative
  2. ΔG° is positive
  3. ΔE°red is positive
  4. ΔE°red is negative.

Answer: 1. ΔG° is negative

For a cell reaction to be spontaneous, ΔG° should be negative. As ΔG° = -nFE°cell, the value will be -ve only when E°cell is +ve.

Question 31. Identify the correct statement regarding entropy.

  1. At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of all crystalline substances is taken to be zero.
  2. At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is +ve.
  3. At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero.
  4. At 0°C, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero.

Answer: 3. At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero.

The entropy of a substance increases with an increase in temperature. However, at absolute zero, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken as zero, which is also called as third law of thermodynamics.

Question 32. Following reaction occurring in an automobile \(2 \mathrm{C}_8 \mathrm{H}_{18(\mathrm{~g})}+25 \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \rightarrow 16 \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}+18 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{g})}\) The sign of ΔH, ΔS and ΔG would be

  1. -,+,+
  2. +,+,-
  3. +,-,+
  4. -,+,-

Answer: 4. -,+,-

  1. The given reaction is a combustion reaction, therefore ΔH is less than 0. Hence, ΔH is negative.
  2. Since there is an increase in the number of moles of gaseous products, therefore ΔS is positive.
  3. Since the reaction is spontaneous, therefore ΔG is negative.

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1?

  1. 2
  2. 6
  3. 10
  4. 14

Answer: 1. 2

For n=3 and l = 1, the subshell is 3p and a particular 3p orbital can accommodate only 2 electrons.

Question 2. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?

  1. \(d_{z^2}, d_{x z}\)
  2. \(d_{x z}, d_{y z}\)
  3. \(d_{z^2}, d_{x^2-y^2}\)
  4. \(d_{x y} d_{x^2-y^2}\)

Answer: 3. \(d_{z^2}, d_{x^2-y^2}\)

∴ \(d_{x^2-y^2}\) and \(d_z^2\) orbitals have electron density along the axes while dxy, dyz, and dxz orbitals have electron density in between the axes.

Read And Learn More Class 11 Chemistry Solutions

Question 3. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by

  1. Azimuthal quantum number
  2. Spin quantum number
  3. Principal quantum number
  4. Magnetic quantum number.

Answer: 2. Spin quantum number

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom Multiple Choice Questions

For the two electrons occupying the same orbital values of n, I and ml are the same but ms is different, -31, i.e., \(\frac{1}{2}\) and –\(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 4. Which is the correct order of increasing energy of the listed orbitals in the atom of titanium? (Atomic number Z = 22)

  1. 4s 3s 3p 3d
  2. 3s 3p 3d 4s
  3. 3s 3p 4s 3d
  4. 3s 4s 3p 3d

Answer; 3. 3s 3p 4s 3d

Ti(22) : ls² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 4s² 3d²

∴ The order of increasing energy is 3s,3p,4s,3d.

Read And Learn More Class 11 Chemistry Solutions

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom MCQs

Question 5. The number of d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which one of the following?

  1. d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
  2. p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
  3. s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
  4. p-electrons in Cl (Z= 17)

Answer: 4. p-electrons in Cl (Z= 17)

Number of d-electrons in Fe2+ = 6

Number of p-electrons in Cl = 11

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Class 11 ChemistryTransformation of Sentences
Class 8 MathsClass 8 Science

Question 6. The angular momentum of an electron in the ‘d’ orbital is equal to

  1. 2√3 h
  2. h
  3. √6 h
  4. √2 h

Answer: 3. √6 h

Angular momentum = \(\sqrt{l(l+1)} \hbar\)

For d-orbital, l = 2

Angular momentum = \(\sqrt{2(2+1)} \hbar=\sqrt{6} \hbar\)

Question 7. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum numbers? n = 3, l= 1, ml = 0

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: 1. 1

Only one orbital, 3pz has the following set of quantum numbers, n = 3, l = 1, and ml = 0.

Question 8. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum numbers? n = 3, l = 1 and m = -1

  1. 4
  2. 2
  3. 10
  4. 6

Answer: 2. 2

The orbital associated with n = 3, l = 1 is 3p. One orbital (with m= -1) of 3p-subshell can accommodate a maximum of 2 electrons.

Question 9. The outer electronic configuration of Gd (Atomic number 64) is

  1. \(4 f^5 5 d^4 6 s^1\)
  2. \(4 f^7 5 d^1 6 s^2\)
  3. \(4 f^3 5 d^5 6 s^2\)
  4. \(4 f^4 5 d^5 6 s^1\)

Answer: 2. \(4 f^7 5 d^1 6 s^2\)

The electronic configuration of 64Gd is [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2

Question 10. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is

  1. 14
  2. 16
  3. 10
  4. 12

Answer: 1. 14

l = 3 and n= 4 represents 4f. So, total number of electrons in a subshell = 2(2l + 1) = 2(2 x 3 + 1) = 14 eiectrons.

Hence, the f-subshell can contain a maximum of 14 electrons.

Structure of Atom Multiple Choice Questions PSEB Class 11

Question 11. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is

  1. 5, 1,1,+1/2
  2. 6, 0, 0,+1/2
  3. 5, 0, 0, +1/2
  4. 5,1, 0, +1/2

Answer: 3. 5, 0, 0, +1/2

Rb(37): 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s1

For 5s, n =5,l=0,m=0, s = +1/2 or -1/2

Question 12. The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as

  1. \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2} \pi}\)
  2. \(\sqrt{3} \frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
  3. \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}} \frac{h}{\pi}\)
  4. \(\sqrt{6} \frac{h}{2 \pi}\)

Answer: 1. \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2} \pi}\)

Orbital angular momentum (m) = \(\sqrt{l(l+1)} \frac{h}{2 \pi}\)

For p-electrons; l = 1

Thus, m = \(\sqrt{1(1+1)} \frac{h}{2 \pi}=\frac{\sqrt{2} h}{2 \pi}=\frac{h}{\sqrt{2} \pi}\)

Question 13. The total number of atomic orbitals in the fourth energy level of an atom is

  1. 8
  2. 16
  3. 32
  4. 4

Answer: 2. 16

The total number of atomic orbitals in any energy level is given by n².

Question 14. If n = 6, the correct sequence for the filling of electrons will be

  1. ns → (n – 2)f → (n – 1)d → np
  2. ns → (n – 1 )d  → (n – 2)f → np
  3. ns → (n – 2)f → np → (n -1)d
  4. ns → np → (n – 1)d → (n – 2)f

Answer: 1. ns → (n – 2)f →(n – 1)d → np

Question 15. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following

  1. 2l +1
  2. 4l – 2
  3. 2n²
  4. 4l + 2

Answer: 4. 4l+ 2

For a given shell, n the number of subshells = (2l + 1)

Since each orbital can accommodate 2 electrons of opposite spin, so maximum number of electrons in a subshell = 2(2l+1) =4l +2.

Question 16. Which of the following is not a permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?

  1. n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2
  2. n = 3, l = 2, m = -3, s = -1/2
  3. n – 3, l = 2, m = -2, s = -1/2
  4. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = -1/2

Answer: 2. n = 3, l = 2, m = -3, s = -1/2

In an atom, for any value of ru, the values of l = 0 to (n-1).

For a given value of l, the values of ml = -l to 0 to +l and the value of s = +1/2 or -1/2.

In option (2), l = 2 and ml = -3

This is not possible, as values of m7 which are possible for l = 2 are -2, -1,0, +1 and +2 only

Structure of Atom Multiple Choice Questions PSEB Class 11

Question 17. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by

  1. Principal quantum number
  2. Azimuthal quantum number
  3. Spin quantum number
  4. Magnetic quantum number.

Answer: 4. Magnetic quantum number.

The principal quantum number represents the name, size, and energy of the shell to which the electron belongs.

The azimuthal quantum number describes the spatial distribution of electron cloud and angular momentum. The magnetic quantum number describes the orientation or distribution of the electron cloud.

The spin quantum number represents the direction of electron spin around its own axis.

Question 18. In a given atom no two electrons can have the same values for all four quantum numbers. This is called

  1. Hunds Rule
  2. Aufbau principle
  3. Uncertainty principle
  4. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle.

Answer: 4. Pauli’s Exclusion principle.

This is a Pauli’s exclusion principle

Question 19. The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of an atom will be

  1. 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d, 5s
  2. 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 4s
  3. 5s, 4p, 3d, 4d, 5s
  4. 3d,4p,4s,4d,5s

Answer: 2. 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 4s

The higher the value of n +l) for an orbital, the higher is its energy. However, if two different types of orbitals have the same value of (n +l), the orbital with the lower value of n has lower energy

Question 20. The electronic configuration of Cu (atomic number 29) is

  1. \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^6 3 s^2 3 p^6 4 s^2 3 d^9\)
  2. \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^6 3 s^2 3 p^6 3 d^{10} 4 s^1\)
  3. \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^6 3 s^2 3 p^6 4 s^2 4 p^6 5 s^2 5 p^1\)
  4. \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^6 3 s^2 3 p^6 4 s^2 4 p^6 3 d^3\)

Answer: 2. \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^6 3 s^2 3 p^6 3 d^{10} 4 s^1\)

The electronic configuration of Cu+ is \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^6 3 s^2 3 p^6 3 d^{10} 4 s^1\)

Question 21. The total number of electrons that can be accommodated in all the orbitals having principal quantum number 2 and azimuthal quantum number 1 are

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

Answer: 3. 6

n=2, l = 1

It means 2p-orbitals.

Total no. of electrons that can be accommodated in all the 2p orbitals = 6

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Structure of Atom MCQs with Answers

Question 22. An ion has 18 electrons in the outermost shell, it is

  1. Cu+
  2. Th4+
  3. Cs+
  4. K+

Answer: 1. Cu+

Cu+ ion has 18 electrons in its outermost shell. The electronic configuration of Cu+ is \(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^6 3 s^2 3 p^6 3 d^{10}\)

Question 23. The number of unpaired electrons in N2+ is/are

  1. 2
  2. 0
  3. 1
  4. 3

Answer: 3. 1

N2+ = 1s²2s³2p¹

∴ No. of unpaired electrons = 1

Question 24. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by the expression

  1. 4l – 2
  2. 4l + 2
  3. 2l + 2
  4. 2n²

Answer: 2. 4l + 2

No. of orbitals in a subshell = 2l + l

No. of electrons = 2(2l + 1) = 4l + 2

Question 25. The number of spherical nodes in 3p orbitals is/are

  1. One
  2. Three
  3. None
  4. Two

Answer: 1. One

No. of radial nodes in 3p-orbita = n – l – 1 = 3 – 1 -1 = 1

Organisms and Populations Class 12 Biology MCQs

Organisms and Populations Questions

Question 1. The keystone species in an ecosystem are those which:

  1. Are present in a large number
  2. Arc most frequent
  3. Attain a large biomass
  4. Contribute to ecosystem properties.

Answer: 4. Contribute to ecosystem properties.

Question 2. The sphere of living matter together with water, air, and soil on the earth is called:

  1. Atmosphere
  2. Hydrosphere
  3. Lithosphere
  4. Biosphere

Answer: 4. Biosphere

Question 3. Plants with irreversible and genetically fixed adaptations are known as :

  1. Ecotypes
  2. Ecotones
  3. Ecophenes
  4. Ecological Equivalents.

Answer: 1. Ecotypes

Read and Learn More 12th Class Biology MCQs

Question 4. Species which has a restricted distribution is called :

  1. Endemic
  2. Sympatric
  3. Allopatric
  4. Ecospecies

Answer: 1. Endemic

Organisms and Populations Class 12 Biology MCQs

Question 5. The study of communities, especially their environmental relationship, and structure, is known as

  1. Autoecology
  2. Synecology
  3. Genecology
  4. Phytosociology

Answer: 2. Synecology

Organisms and Populations Class 12 Biology MCQs

Question 6. When the organisms live together in such a manner that one organism is benefited while the other remains unaffected. This type of association is called:

  1. Commensalism
  2. Symbiosis
  3. Mutualism
  4. Parasitism.

Answer: 1. Commensalism

Question 7. Plants and animals living in a given area form a:

  1. Biome
  2. Ecotone
  3. Biotic community
  4. Bioindicator.

Answer: 3. Biotic community

Question 8. The part of the earth and atmosphere supporting life is:

  1. Biota
  2. Biome
  3. Ecotone
  4. Biosphere

Answer: 4. Biosphere

Question 9. Which of the following is synecology?

  1. Study of the same species
  2. Study of different species
  3. Both of these
  4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Study of different species

Question 10. The term ‘biocoenosis’ was coined by:

  1. Karl Mobius
  2. Charles Darwin
  3. E.P. Odum
  4. E.Haeckel.

Answer: 4. E.Haeckel.

Question 11. A number of immigrants is more than emigration and deaths is lower than natality. The growth curve of the population will show:

  1. Exponential phase
  2. Lag phase
  3. Declining phase
  4. Steady phase.

Answer: 1. Exponential phase

Class 12 Biology Chapter Organisms and Populations MCQs

Question 12. Which one of the following has raised check bone, oblique eyes, and yellowish skin color

  1. Negroids
  2. Mongoloids
  3. Polynesians
  4. Caucasoids

Answer: 2. Mongoloids

Question 13. Scent-producing glands arc:

  1. Anal glands
  2. Adrenal glands
  3. Bertholin’s gland
  4. Prostate gland.

Answer: 1. Anal glands

Question 14. Pheromone is:

  1. Product of endocrine gland
  2. A protein
  3. mRNA
  4. Used for animal communication

Answer: 4. mRNA

Question 15. The percentage ratio of natality over mortality is:

  1. Population dynamics
  2. Vital index
  3. Population density
  4. Total count.

Answer: 2. Vital index

Question 16. The human population shows:

  1. J-shaped growth curve
  2. Z-shaped growth curve
  3. S-shaped growth curve
  4. All the above.

Answer: 3. S-shaped growth curve

Question 17. The process of mating of individuals which are more closely related than the average of the population to which they belong is called :

  1. Inbreeding
  2. Hybridization
  3. Heterosis
  4. Self-Breeding.

Answer: 1. Inbreeding

Question 18. Adaptation of a species is its :

  1. Ecdysis
  2. Metamorphosis
  3. Acquired Character
  4. Hereditary Character.

Answer: 4. Hereditary Character

Class 12 Biology Chapter Organisms and Populations MCQs

Question 19. The abundance of a species in a population, within its habitat, is called:

  1. Atniche density
  2. Absolute density
  3. Relative density
  4. Regional density.

Answer: 1. Atniche density

Question 20. Asymptote is a stage when a population is:

  1. Stabilized
  2. Changing
  3. Increasing
  4. Decreasing.

Answer: 1. Stabilised

Question 21. Two species cannot occupy the same niche. This law is known as:

  1. Wien Law
  2. Gause Law
  3. Allen Law
  4. Competition Exclusion Principle.

Answer: 2. Gause Law

Question 22. In which one of the following habitats, does the diurnal temperature of the soil surface vary most?

  1. Forest
  2. Desert
  3. Grassland
  4. Shrub land

Answer: 2. Desert

Question 23. Broad-leaved forest oaks are found in

  1. North coniferous forests
  2. Mediterranean evergreen forest
  3. Temperate deciduous forests
  4. Tropical deciduous forest.

Answer: 2. Mediterranean evergreen forest

Question 24. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of

  1. Aridity
  2. Acidity
  3. Metal toxicity
  4. Salinity.

Answer: 4. Salinity.

Question 25. At which latitude, does heat gain through insolation approximately equals heat loss through terrestrial radiation?

  1. 66%° North and South
  2. 22½° North and South
  3. 421½° North and South
  4. 40° North and South.

Answer: 3. 42½° North and South

Question 26. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the incorrect example:

  1. Colomuchange in chameleon
  2. Melanism in moths
  3. Poison fangs in snakes
  4. Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in puffer fish.

Answer: 3. Poison fangs in snakes

Question 27. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within lichen. The fungus:

  1. Fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
  2. Provides protection, anchorage, and absorption for the alga
  3. Releases oxygen for the alga
  4. Provides food for the alga.

Answer: 2. Provides protection, anchorage, and absorption for the alga

State Board Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations MCQs

Question 28. Identify the correctly matched pair:

  1. Montreal Protocol – Global warming
  2. Kyoto Protocol – Climatic change
  3. Ramsar Convention – Groundwater pollution
  4. Basal Convention – Biodiversity Conservation

Answer: 2. Kyoto Protocol – Climatic change

Question 29. The ability of the Venus fly trap to capture insects is, due to:

  1. Specialized ’muscle-like’ cells
  2. Chemical stimulation by the prey
  3. A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
  4. Rapid turgor pressure changes.

Answer: 4. Rapid turgor pressure changes.

Question 30. Sunderban contains mainly:

  1. Mangrove plants
  2. Alpine trees
  3. Thick forest
  4. Grass.

Answer: 1. Mangroove plants

Question 31. Pneumatophores are present/common in

  1. Xerophytes
  2. Hygrophytes
  3. Mesophytes
  4. Helopytes

Answer: 4. Helopytes

Question 32. Which one of the following correctly represents an organism and its ecological niche?

  1. Vallisncria and pond
  2. Desert locust (Scistoccrca)
  3. Plant lice (aphids) and leaf
  4. Vultures and dense forest.

Answer: 3. Plant lice (aphids) and leaf

Question 33. Humidity in the atmosphere decreases the rate of:

  1. Transpiration
  2. Photosynthesis
  3. Glycolysis
  4. Growth.

Answer: 1. Transpiration

Question 34. Niche overlap indicates:

  1. Sharing of one or more resources between the two species
  2. Mutualism between two species
  3. Active cooperation between two species
  4. Two different parasites on the same host.

Answer: 1. Sharing of one or more resources between the two species

State Board Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations MCQs

Question 35. Annual migration does not occur in the case of:

  1. Salamander
  2. Salmon
  3. Arctic tern
  4. Siberian crane.

Answer: 1. Salamander

Question 36. Choose the correct combination of labeling of the zones in water in a lake.

  1. a-Limnetic zone, b-Profoundal zone, c-Littoral zone, d-Benthic zone
  2. a-Littoral zone, b-Benthic zone, c-Profundal zone, d-Limnetic zone
  3. a-Littoral zone, b-Limnetic zone, c-Profundal zone, d-Benthic zone
  4. a-Limnetic zone, b-Littoral zone, c-Benthic zone, d-profundal zone
  5. a-Littoral zone, b-Profundal zone, c-Benthic zone, d-Limnetic zone.

Answer: 3. a-Littoral zone, b-Limnetic zone, c-Profundal zone, d-Benthic zone

Question 37. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of

  1. Population
  2. Landscape
  3. Ecosystem
  4. Biotic community.

Answer: 1. Population

Question 38. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in number during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

  1. The food plants mat arc and die at the end of the rainy season.
  2. Its population growth curve is of J-type.
  3. The population of its predators increases enormously
  4. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.

Answer: 2. Its population growth curve is of J-type.

Question 39. Which one of the following is categorized as a parasite in the true sense?

  1. The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans
  2. A human fetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother
  3. Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair
  4. The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in a crow’s nest.

Answer: 3. Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair

Question 40. Consider the following four conditions (1 – 4) and select die correct pair of them as adaptation to the environment in desert lizards. The conditions:

  1. Burrowing in soil to escape high-temperature
  2. Losing heat rapidly from the body during high-temperature
  3. Bask in the sun when the temperature is low
  4. The insulating body is due, to the thick fatty dermis.

Options:

  1. (3), (4)
  2. (1), (3)
  3. (2), (4)
  4. (1), (2)

Answer: 2. (1), (3)

State Board Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations MCQs

Question 41. What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid?

  1. Vanishing population
  2. Stable population
  3. Declining population
  4. Expanding population

Answer: 3. Declining population

Question 42. People, who migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about six months back:

  1. Are not physically fit to play games like football.
  2. Suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.
  3. Have the usual RBC count but their haemoglobin has a very high binding affinity to O2
  4. Have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2

Answer: 4. Have more RBCs and their hemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2

Question 43. The fungal association of roots of higher plants in mycorrhiza is known as :

  1. Parasitism
  2. Hyperparasitism
  3. Mutualism
  4. Commensalism.

Answer: 3. Mutualism

Question 44. Hyperparasite is a kind of parasite which:

  1. Kills its host
  2. Completes life cycle in one host
  3. Uses host machinery for reproduction
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 45. Plants obtaining nourishment from other plants by haustoria are:

  1. Mcsophytes
  2. Parasites
  3. Xerophytes
  4. Halophytes.

Answer: 2. Parasites

Question 46. A successful parasite is the one which

  1. Grows rapidly
  2. Reproduces last
  3. Sdcks to host for a long
  4. Makes minimum demands from its host.

Answer: 4. Makes minimum demands from its host.

Question 47. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the two organisms in commensalism?

  1. No one is harmed
  2. Both partners are harmed
  3. One partner benefits whether another suffers partner benefits and the other remains unharmed.
  4. Answer: 4. One partner benefited while another suffering partner benefited and the other remains unharmed.

Organisms and Populations MCQs with Answers Class 12

Question 48. Which is not characteristic of intestinal symbionts?

  1. Feeding on extra food of the host
  2. Providing vitamins to host
  3. Anaerobic respiration
  4. Aerobic respiration.

Answer: 4. Aerobic respiration

Question 49. Ecological succession on sand is:

  1. Timomere
  2. Xerosere
  3. Halosere
  4. Hydrosere

Answer: 1. Timomere

Question 50. The cause of mimicry is

  1. Concealment
  2. Offense
  3. Defense
  4. Both (2) And (3).

Answer: 1. Concealment

Question 51. Which of the following insects mimics thin dry branches of the plant on which it lives?

  1. KaIlima parallactic
  2. Mantis religiosa
  3. Phyllium frondosum
  4. Caraitstusmorosus.

Answer: 2. Mantis religiosa

Question 52. The individual that shows mimicry is called:

  1. Mimic
  2. Predator
  3. Prey
  4. Parasite

Answer: 1. Mimic

Question 53. Heterodon flattens its head and produces frequent hissing and strikes to advertise as if it is dangerous. This is an example of:

  1. Alluring mimicry
  2. Warning mimicry
  3. Concealing mimicry
  4. Batesian mimicry.

Answer: 2. Warning mimicry

Question 54. In conscious mimicry:

  1. The organisms behave as if they are dead bodies
  2. The organisms become more conscious
  3. The organism catches its prey with great ease
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. The organisms behave as if they are dead bodies

Question 55. Which of the following resembles a dry leaf?

  1. Phyllium
  2. Paralectci
  3. Cryptolithodes
  4. Pap ilia machaon.

Answer: 2. Paralectci

Question 56. July 11 is observed as:

  1. No tobacco day
  2. World health day
  3. World population day
  4. World environment day

Answer: 4. World Environment Day

Organisms and Populations MCQs with Answers Class 12

Question 57. Which among the following is the primary function of mimicry prevalent in some animals?

  1. Warning
  2. Concealment
  3. Allurement
  4. Aggression.

Answer: 2. Concealment

Question 58. Succession in an ecosystem is the result of:

  1. Occurrence of diseases
  2. Changes in grazing habits of animals
  3. Competition among animals
  4. Adaptive ability to environmental changes.

Answer: 4. Adaptive ability to environmental changes

Question 59. Mycorrhiza is an example of:

  1. Decomposers
  2. Endoparasitism
  3. Symbiotic relationship
  4. Ectoparasitism.

Answer: 3. Symbiotic relationship

Question 60. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them relates to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing it is called :

  1. Morbidity
  2. Biotic potential
  3. Fecundity
  4. Environmental resistance

Answer: 4. Environmental resistance

Question 61. Maximum growth rate occurs in:

  1. Senescent Phase
  2. Lag Phase
  3. Exponential Phase
  4. Stationary Phase.

Answer: 3. Exponential Phase

Question 62. Lichens are a well-known combination of an alga and a fungus where the fungus has:

  1. An epiphytic relationship with the alga
  2. A parasitic relationship with the alga
  3. Symbiotic relationship with the alga
  4. A saprophytic relationship with alga.

Answer: 3. Symbiotic relationship with the alga

Organisms and Populations MCQs with Answers Class 12

Question 63. An ecosystem that can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if the damaging effect stops will have the following:

  1. High stability and low resistance
  2. Low stability and low resistance
  3. High stability and high resistance
  4. Low stability and high resistance.

Answer: 1. High stability and low resistance

Question 64. A terrestrial animal must be able to:

  1. Actively pump salts out through the skin
  2. Excrete large amounts of salts in urine
  3. Excrete a large amount of water in urine
  4. Conserve water.

Answer: 4. Conserve water.

Question 65. What is a keystone species?

  1. A common species that has plenty of biomass yet has a fairly low impact on the community’s organization
  2. A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and no other species in the community
  3. A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species
  4. A species that makes only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community yet has a huge impact on the community’s organization and survival.

Answer: 4. A species that makes only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on a community’s organization and survival.

Question 66. The most thoroughly studied of the known bacteria-plant interaction is the:

  1. Nodulation of Sesbania stems by N2 fixing bacteria
  2. Plant growth stimulation by phosphate-solubilizing bacteria
  3. Cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
  4. Gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium.

Answer: 4. Gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium.

Question 67. A term used to describe non-dominant species that dictate community structure is:

  1. Pioneer species
  2. Exogenous species
  3. Keystone species
  4. Transitional species.

Answer: 3. Keystone species

Question 68. In succession, complexities in structure:

  1. Drastically increase
  2. Slowly increase
  3. Does not increase
  4. Constant.

Answer: 2. Slowly increase

Question 69. The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is known as

  1. Bottleneck effect
  2. Edge effect
  3. Junction effect
  4. Pasteur effect.

Answer: 2. Edge effect

Question 70. Small fish get stuck near the bottom of a shark and derive its nutrition from it. This kind of association is called as:

  1. Symbiosis
  2. Commensalism
  3. Predation
  4. Parasitism.

Answer: 2. Commensalism

Question 71. A praying mantis is a good example of:

  1. Social insects
  2. Camouflage
  3. Mullerian mimicry
  4. Warning coloration.

Answer: 2. Camouflage

Question 72. The formula for exponential population growth is:

  1. rN/dN = dt
  2. dN/dt = rN
  3. dt/dN = rN
  4. dN/rN = dt.

Answer: 2. dN/dt = rN

Question 73. Match the following with the correct combination:

  1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
  2. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
  3. 1-A, 2-B, 3-B, 4-D
  4. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
  5. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A.

Answer: 2. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

Question 74. Find out the correct order of succession levels in xerarch.

  1. Lichen moss stage, annual herb stage, perennial herb stage, scrub stage, forest
  2. Annual herb stage, perennial herb stage, lichen moss stage, scrub stage, forest
  3. Perennial herb stage, annual herb stage, lichen moss stage, scrub stage, forest
  4. Scrub stage, forest, annual herb stage, perennial herb stage, lichen moss stage
  5. Forest, scrub stage, annual stage, perennial herb stage, lichen moss stage.

Answer: 1. Lichen moss stage, annual herb stage, perennial herb stage, scrub stage, forest

Organisms and Populations MCQs with Answers Class 12

Question 75. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:

  1. Interaction of water, air, and clay under intense heat
  2. Effect of solar radiation on chemicals
  3. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
  4. Crystallization of chemicals.

Answer: 3. Possible origin of life by a combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions

Question 76. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, the following is most likely to occur:

  1. A bimodal distribution
  2. A T-shaped curve
  3. A skewed curve
  4. A normal distribution.

Answer: 4. A normal distribution.

Question 77 The equation \(\frac{\Delta N_n}{\Delta N}\) represents which of the following?

  1. Natality
  2. Growth rate
  3. Mortality
  4. All of these.

Answer: 2. Growth rate

Question 78. The change in population size at a given time interval t, is given by the expression Nt = N0 + I – D – E, I, B, and D stand respectively for

  1. Rate of immigration, mortality rate, natality rate
  2. Rate of emigration, natality rate, mortality rate
  3. Mortality rate, natality rate, rate of immigration
  4. Mortality rate, rate of immigration, natality rate
  5. Rate of immigration, natality rate, mortality rate.

Answer: 5. Rate of immigration, natality rate, mortality rate.

Question 79. Which one of the following is considered as pioneer community in xerarch?

  1. Annual herb
  2. Perennial herb
  3. Scrub stage
  4. Forest stage
  5. Lichen

Answer: 5. Lichen

Question 80. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?

  1. It begins on a bare rock
  2. It occurs on a deforested site
  3. It follows a primary succession
  4. It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace.

Answer: 2. It occurs on a deforested site

Question 81. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of a hermit crab. The association is:

  1. Symbiosis
  2. Commensalism
  3. Amensalism
  4. Ectoparasitism

Answer: 2. Commensalism

Question 82. A biologist studied the population of rats in a bam. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality was 240, immigration was 20, and emigration 30. The net increase in population is:

  1. 15
  2. 05
  3. Zero
  4. 10

Answer: 3. Zero

MCQs On Pteridophytes Class 11 Biology

Question 1. The rudimentary seed habit has been attained in :

  1. Psilotum
  2. Lycopodium
  3. Selaginella
  4. Equisetum.

Answer: 3. Selaginella

Question 2. Which of the following plants exhibit independent alternation of generations?

  1. Angiosperms
  2. Gymnosperms
  3. Pteridophytes
  4. Bryophytes.

Answer: 3. Pteridophytes

Question 3. Seed habit first originated in:

  1. Certain ferns
  2. Certain pines
  3. Certain monocots
  4. Primitive dicots.

Answer: 1. Certain ferns

Read And Learn More Class 11 Biology MCQs

Question 4. What may be the possible advantage accruing out of the presence of antheridia and archegonia on the underside of a fern prothallus?

  1. They are protected from the direct rays of the sun.
  2. Capillary water accumulates on the underside of the prothallus between its lower surface and the soil surface. Sex organs projecting in this water can be readily fertilized by the ciliated sperms which are chemotactically attracted by the archegonia.
  3. The sex organs are protected from wind.
  4. Nutrients manufactured by the green prothallus can
    readily seep downwards to the sex organs due to the action of gravity.

Answer: 2. Capillary water accumulates on the underside of the prothallus between its lower surface and the soil surface. Sex organs projecting in this water can be readily fertilized by the ciliated sperms which are chemotactically attracted by the archegonia.

Question 5. In selaginella:

  1. Gametophyte is dominant
  2. Sporophyte is dominant
  3. Sporophyte is total parasite
  4. Gametophyte is a total parasite.

Answer: 2. Sporophyte is dominant

MCQs on Pteridophytes Class 11 Biology

MCQs On Pteridophytes Class 11 Biology

Question 6. Fern gametophyte bears:

  1. Roots
  2. Antheridia
  3. Archegonia
  4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 2. Antheridia

Question 7. In selaginella, the male gametes are :

  1. Uniflagellate
  2. Biflagellate
  3. Non-flagellate
  4. Multiflagellate.

Answer: 2. Biflagellate

Question 8. The term prothallus is used for :

  1. Stage before thallus
  2. Plant body without differentiation of stem, leaves, and roots
  3. Reduced gametophyte
  4. Reduced sporophyte.

Answer: 3. Reduced gametophyte

Question 9. A plant having vascular supply, producing spores, and lacking seeds is:

  1. Bryophyte
  2. Pteridophyte
  3. Angiosperm
  4. Gymnosperm.

Answer: 2. Pteridophyte

Question 10. Meiosis occurs in ferns during:

  1. Spore formation
  2. Archegonia formation
  3. Antheridia formation
  4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 1. Spore formation

Question 11. Annulus occurs in :

  1. Annual plants
  2. Mosses
  3. Gymnosperms.
  4. Both mosses and ferns

Answer: 3. Gymnosperms.

Pteridophytes MCQs for Class 11 with Answers

Question 12. Selaginella multiplies vegetatively through :

  1. Tubers
  2. Resting buds
  3. Fragmentation
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 13. Which aquatic fern performs nitrogen fixation?

  1. Azolla
  2. Nostoc
  3. Salvia
  4. Salvinia.

Answer: 1. Azolla

Question 14. Ferns are the first to appear after a forest fire because of the survival of their:

  1. Spores
  2. Fronds
  3. Rhizome
  4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 3. Rhizome

Question 15. Which one propagates through the leaf tip :

  1. Marchantia
  2. Moss
  3. Walking fern
  4. Pinus.

Answer: 3. Walking fern

Question 16. Meiosis occurs in pteridophytes during :

  1. Gamete formation
  2. Spore formation
  3. Postgamete formation
  4. Postspore formation.

Answer: 2. Spore formation

Question 17. Ectophloic siphonostele is found in :

  1. Adiantum and cucurbitaceae
  2. Osmunda and equisetum
  3. Marsilea and botrychium
  4. Dicksonia and maidenhair fern.

Answer: 2. Osmunda and equisetum

Question 18. Which is the resurrection plant?

  1. Dryopteris fillixmass
  2. Adiantum caudatum
  3. Adiantum capillusveneris
  4. Selaginella lepidophylla.

Answer: 4. Selaginella lepidophylla.

Class 11 Biology Chapter Pteridophytes MCQs

Question 19. Which one of the following is called maidenhair fern?

  1. Dryopteris
  2. Pteris
  3. Adiantum
  4. Lycopodium
  5. Selaginella.

Answer: 3. Lycopodium

Question 20. Which one of the following is heterosporous?

  1. Adiantum
  2. Equisetum
  3. Dryopteris
  4. Salvinia.

Answer: 4. Salvinia.

Question 21. Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be :

  1. Smaller but to have larger sex organs
  2. Larger but to have smaller sex organs
  3. Larger and to have larger sex organs
  4. Smaller and to have smaller sex organs.

Answer: 4. Smaller and to have smaller sex organs.

Question 22. The heterosporous pteridophyte belonging to the class lycopsids is

  1. Selaginella
  2. Psilotum
  3. Equisetum
  4. Pteris
  5. Adiantum

Answer: 1. Selaginella

PSEB Class 10th Results To Be Declared 04th July 2022

Students in the 10th grade who took the Punjab School Education Board (PSEB) 2022 exam may receive their results today.

According to media sources, the PSEB will reveal the Class 10th term-II results at 12:15 p.m. Students can view their results on the board’s official websites, https://indiaresults.com/punjab and https://pseb.ac.in/.

The PSEB Chairman is likely to hold a news conference to announce the Class 10th Term-II results.

Term I exams were held from December 13 to December 18, 2021, and term I results were revealed on May 18, 2022. Term I results were also given to students’ registered cell phone numbers via SMS. To verify their scores, students need do the following:

  • Click here, here, and here to see the official website.
  • Select the ‘Results’ tab.
  • Enter the credentials from your admission card.