Punjab State Board Class 11 Chemistry Notes For Chapter 6 Chemical Thermodynamics

Heat Capacity, Specific Heat Capacity And Molar Heat Capacity

Heat capacity of a substance

The heat capacity is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature ofa substance by 1°C (1 K).

The heat capacity is usually denoted by If of the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a given amount of substance, then its heat capacity, \(C=\frac{δ q}{d T} \).

characteristics of the heat capacity of a substance

The higher the heat capacity of a substance, the smaller the increase in temperature of a given amount of the substance when a certain amount of heat is added to it. For example, the heat capacity of water is higher than that of copper. So more heat will be required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water than lg of copper by 1 K (or 1°C).

The heat capacity of a substance depends on its nature.

The heat capacity ofa substance depends on its amount. Thus, it is an extensive property.

The heat capacity is a path-dependent quantity. The heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by IK depends on the process by which the substance is heated. For example, the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of1 mol of N2 gas by IK depends on whether the heating is done at constant volume or constant pressure.

Unit: \(\text { cal } \cdot{ }^{\circ} \mathrm{C}^{-1}\left[\text { or, cal } \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}\right] \text { or, } \mathrm{J} \cdot{ }^{\circ} \mathrm{C}^{-1}\left[\text { or, } \mathrm{J} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}\right] \text {. }\)

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Specific heat or specific heat capacity of a substance

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass ofa substance by 1°C [or IK] is called specific heat or specific heat capacity ofthe substance. It is represented by d. Specific heat capacity is an intensive property ofthe system.

⇒ \(Unit: cal \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1} \cdot{ }^{\circ} \mathrm{C}^{-1} or, cal \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1} or, \mathrm{J} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1} \cdot{ }^{\circ} \mathrm{C}^{-1} or, \mathrm{J} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}.\).

The specific heat capacity of water (4.]8J-g-1.°C-1) is considerably higher than that of other common substances. Thus, a large amount of heat as well as time is required to warm a given amount of water. For the same reason, hot water takes a long time to cool.

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Chemical Thermodynamics Notes

Punjab State Board Class 11 Chemistry Notes For Chapter 6 Chemical Thermodynamics

Molar heat capacity

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of I mol of a substance by 1°C (or IK) is called the molar heat capacity of the substance. The molar heat capacity is denoted by’ Cm’ (the suffix’ m ’ refers to molar), it is an Intensive property.

⇒ \(\mathrm{cal} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1} \cdot{ }^{\circ} \mathrm{C}^{-1} \text { or, cal } \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}\)

⇒ \(\text { or, } \mathrm{J} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1} \cdot{ }^{\circ} \mathrm{C}^{-1} \text { or, } \mathrm{J} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1} \text {. }\)

Molar heated panacea substance(Cm)

=Specify Lear capacity of me substance(c) x Molar mass (M)

Heat absorbed or released by substance (q)

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Chemical Thermodynamics Notes

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= mass of the substance (m)>specificheat capacity (c) x increase or decrease in temperature <Ar> thus, q= mxcxT

[where AT =final temperature- initial temperature] Using fee equation [1], we can calculate c if we know the values of, m and AT. The heat released or absorbed (q) can be calculated by using equation [1] if we know the values of c, m, and AT. An increase or decrease in temperature (AT) can be calculated by using equation[1] if we know the values of q,c, and m.

Heat Capacity Of A Substance At Constant Volume And Pressure

Chemical Thermodynamic Heat Capacity Of A Substance At Constant Volume And Pressure

Chemical Thermodynamic Molar Heat Capacities Of SOme Gases At Constant Volume And Constant Pressure

Comparison of the values of molar heat capacities at constant pressure and constant volume

Comparison for gaseous substances: For gaseous substances, the molar heat capacity at constant pressure is greater than die molar heat capacity at constant volume.

Addition of heat at constant volume: As the volume of the system is constant, no external work by the system is possible. So, all die heat added to the system will be used for increasing the internal energy of the system, which in turn increases the temperature of the die system.

Chemical Thermodynamics For A Gas

Suppose, the addition of 8a amount of heat to 1 mole of gas causes an increase in the temperature of the gas by dT. Therefore, by definition,

⇒ \(C_{V, m}=\left(\frac{\delta q}{d T}\right)_V\)

Addition of heat at constant pressure: When heat is added to a gas at constant pressure the added heat is used up in two ways. One part of it is expended for the external work done by the system, and the other part of it goes to increase the internal energy of the system.

As a result of an increase in internal energy, the temperature of the system also increases Suppose, when 5q amount of heat is added to l mole of a gas at constant pressure, the temperature of the gas is increased by dT’.

Class 11 Chemistry Chemical Thermodynamics Notes

So, by definition \(C_{P, m}=\left(\frac{\delta q}{d T^{\prime}}\right)_P\) Therefore, if Ihe same amount of heat Is added to I mol of a given gas separately at constant volume and constant pressure, then the Increase in temperature will be small at constant pressure than at constant volume so dt’,dt and cp, m. Cv, m. As a result of this, the molar heat capacity of a gas at constant pressure(cp,m) will be greater than its molar heat capacity at constant volume (cv,m).

Comparison in the case of solids and liquids: when heat is added to a solid or liquid, there occurs no significant change in their volumes. Thus, the work involved in the process of heating a solid or liquid at constant pressure is negligible. This is why the values of Cp m and Cv m are found to be almost the same in the case of a liquid or solid.

For a gas, the ratio of the molar heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp m) to the molar heat capacity at constant volume (Cp,m) is termed as heat capacity ratio (7). Therefore, 7 =CPf m/C V, m

Some relations of Cp and Cv for an ideal gas 1) Internal energy ( U) of an ideal gas depends only on the temperature (T), neither on the pressure (P) nor the volume (V). When an ideal gas undergoes a process involving only P-V work, the heat absorbed by the gas is equal to its internal energy change. Therefore, for an ideal gas

⇒ \(C_V=\left(\frac{\delta q}{d T}\right)_V=\frac{d U}{d T} \text { or, } d \boldsymbol{d}=\boldsymbol{C}_V \boldsymbol{d} T\)

Enthalpy (H) of an ideal gas depends only on temperature (T). It does not depend either on pressure (P) or on volume (V). When an ideal gas undergoes a process involving only P-V work, the heat absorbed by the gas is equal to its enthalpy change. Therefore, for an ideal gas, \(C_P=\left(\frac{\delta q}{d T}\right)_P=\frac{d H}{d T} \text { or, } d H=C_P d T\)

For an ideal gas, the difference between the moon’s heat capacities at constant pressure and constant volume is equal to the universal gas constant (R). Thus, CP, m -CV, m = R.

For 1 mole of an ideal gas, PV = RT

Substitution RT for PV in the relation H = U+ PV gives the enthalpy for1 mol of an ideal gas, i.e., H = U+ RT Differentiating both sides, we have dH = dU + RdT.

Dividing both sides by dT gives

⇒ \(\frac{d H}{d T}=\frac{d U}{d T}+R \quad \text { or, } C_{P, m}=C_{V, m}+R\) Or, \(C_{P, m}-C_{V, m}=R\)

[For an ideal gas, dU = CydT and dH = CpdT}

The change in internal energy (A) with the change in temperature of an ideal gas: Suppose, the ‘n’ mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process in which its temperature changes from T1 to T2 and so does its internal energy from U1 to U2. Therefore, the change in internal energy ofthe gas,

⇒ \(\int_{U_1}^{U_2} d U=\int_{T_1}^{T_2} n C_{V, m} d T\)

⇒ \(\text { or, } U_2-U_1=\int_{T_1}^{T_2} n C_{V, m} d T \text { or, } \Delta U=\int_{T_1}^{T_2} n C_{V, m} d T\)

Class 11 Chemistry Chemical Thermodynamics Notes

If CV,m is considered to be independent of temperature within the temperature range to T2, then | AU = nCV/Therefore, the change in internal energy (AI7) with the temperature change can be calculated by using equation [1], If T2> T1, then AU = positive, ie., with increasing temperature, the internal energy of the system increases. If T2<Ty then A U = negative i.e., with decreasing temperature, the internal energy of the system decreases.

The change in enthalpy (AH) with the change in temperature for an ideal gas: Suppose, an ideal gas undergoes a process in which its temperature changes from T1 to T2.

As a result of which its enthalpy changes from H1 to H2. Therefore, the change in enthalpy of the gas in this process is:

⇒ \(\int_{H_1}^{H_2} d H=\int_{T_1}^{T_2} n C_{P, m} d T\)

⇒ \(\text { or, } H_2-H_1=\int_{T_1}^{T_2} n C_{P, m} d T \text { or, } \Delta H=\int_{T_1}^{T_2} n C_{P, m} d T\)

If Cp m is considered to be independent of temperature within the temperature range T1 to T2, then, \(\Delta H=n C_{P, m}\left(T_2-T_1\right)\) So, the change in enthalpy (AH) with the change in temperature can be calculated by using equation [1],

Numerical Examples

Question 1. How much 90g of water from 30°C to 100°C? [Molar heat capacity of water at constant pressure = 75.3 J.mol-1 K-1]
Answer: The specific heat of water at constant pressure,

⇒ \(c_P=\frac{C_{P, m}}{M}=\frac{75.3}{18}=4.18 \mathrm{~J} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}\)

where, Cp m = molar heat capacity at constant pressure, M = molar mass ofthe substance Mass of water, m = 90 g and AT = (373-303)K =70K

∴ q =mx cpx AT = 90 x 4.18 x 70 =26334 J =26.33 kj

∴ 26.33 kl of heat is required to raise the temperature of 90g of water from 30 °C to 100 °C.

Question 2. How much heat will be released when the temperature of1 mol of water changes from 90 °C to 80 °C? Given: Specific heat of water 4.18 J.g-1.K-1
Answer: We know, q = mx cx AT The amount of water = lmol. Therefore, m = 18g, c = 4.18 J.g-1.K-1 and \(\Delta T=[(273+80)-(273+90)] \mathrm{K}=-10 \mathrm{~K}\)

∴ q = 18 X 4.18 X (-10) J = —752.40J

So, the amount of heat that will be liberated when the temperature of1 mol water changes from 90 °C to 80 °C is 752.40 J.

Question 3. Specific heats of an ideal gas at constant volume & constant pressure are 0.015 and 0.025 cal. g-1 .K-1 respectively. Determine the molar mass of the gas.
Answer: \(c_V=0.015 \mathrm{cal} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}, c_P=0.025 \mathrm{cal} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}\)

∴ Molar heat capacity at constant volume, Cy m=M x Cy, and that at constant pressure, Cp m = M x cp[Af= molar mass] Again we know, for an ideal gas, Cp m- Cy m = R.

∴ M(Cp-Cy) = R

⇒ \(\text { or, } \quad M(0.025-0.015) \mathrm{cal}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}=1.987 \mathrm{cal}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\)

or, Af = 198.7g-mol-1 \(\left[ R=1.987 \mathrm{cal} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\right]\)

∴ The molar mass of the gas = 198.7 g-mol-1.

Class 11 Chemistry Chemical Thermodynamics Notes

Question 3. Specific heats of an ideal gas at constant volume And constant pressure are 0.015 and 0.025 cal. g-1.K-1 respectively. Determine the molar mass of the gas.
Answer: \(c_V=0.015 \mathrm{cal} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}, c_P=0.025 \mathrm{cal} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}\)

∴ Molar heat capacity at constant volume, Cy m=M x Cy and that at constant pressure, Cp m = M x cp[Af= molar mass]

Again we know, for ideal gas, \(C_{P, m}-C_{V, m}=R.\)

∴ M(Cp-Cy) = R

Or, \(M=198.7 \mathrm{~g} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\)

Since \(R=1.987 \mathrm{cal} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\)

∴ Molar mass ofthe gas = 198.7 g-mol-1.

Punjab State Board Class 11 Chemistry Solutions For Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 1. The standard enthalpy of formation of C7H5N3O6 is -x kj.mol-1 at 25c. write the thermochemical equation for the formation reaction of the compound.
Answer:

The constituent elements of the compound C7H5N3O6(s) whose standard states at 25C are carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen C (graphite, s), H2(g), O2(g) and N2(g) respectively. Therefore, the equation representing the formation reaction of the compound should contain C (graphite, s), H2(g), O2(g) and N2(g) as the sources of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen respectively. are Hence, the thermochemical equation for the formation reaction of the given compound is—

⇒ \(\begin{aligned}
& 7 \mathrm{C} \text { (graphite,s) }+\frac{5}{2} \mathrm{H}_2(\mathrm{~g})+3 \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g})+\frac{3}{2} \mathrm{~N}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_7 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{~N}_3 \mathrm{O}_6(\mathrm{~s}) ; \\
& \Delta H_f^0\left[\mathrm{C}_7 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{~N}_2 \mathrm{O}_6(s)\right]=-x \mathrm{~kJ} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
\end{aligned}\)

Question 2. Under what conditions the heat of reaction at fixed pressure is equal to that at fixed volume?
Answer: we know \(\Delta H=\Delta U+P \Delta V\)

In case of a reaction involving gaseous substances, the equation [1] can be written as, AH = AU + AnRT [Assuming ideal behaviour of the gases]

If a reaction involves only solid or liquid substances (i.e., no gaseous substance), then the change in volume of the reaction system is negligible i.e., ΔV≈O. According to equation (1), for such type of reaction ΔH ≈ AU.

For example: \(\mathrm{NaOH}(a q)+\mathrm{HCl}(a q) \rightarrow \mathrm{NaCl}(a q)+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l)\)

Again, if in a gaseous reaction, the difference between the total no. of moles of gaseous products and the total no. of moles ofthe gaseous reactants is zero (i.e., Δn = 0 ), then AH = A17.

Again, if in a gaseous reaction, the difference between the total no. of moles of gaseous products and the total no. of moles ofthe gaseous reactants is zero (i.e., Δn = 0 ), then AH = A17.

Punjab State Board Class 11 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

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Question 3. Calculate AU and AH in calories if one mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is heated at a constant pressure of 1 atm from 25°C to 50°C.
Answer:

For an ideal gas, the changes in internal energy (A U) and enthalpy (AH) due to the change in its temperature are given by the relations

⇒ \(\Delta U=n \mathrm{C}_{V, m} \Delta T \text { and } \Delta H=n \mathrm{C}_{P, m} \Delta T\)

For a monoatomic ideal gas \(C_{V, m}=\frac{3}{2} R \text { and } C_{P, m}=\frac{5}{2} R \text {. }\)

The number of mole of the gas, n = 1 ; and the change in temperature (AT) = 25 K

Therefore \(\Delta U=1 \times \frac{3}{2} R \times 25=1 \times 1.5 \times 1.987 \times 25 \mathrm{cal}\) =74.5cal and \(\Delta H=1 \times \frac{5}{2} R \times 25=1 \times 2.5 \times 1.987 \times 25 \mathrm{cal}=124.18 \mathrm{cal}\)

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Question 4. How much hard coal is required to produce the same amount of heat as is produced by the combustion of 2.0 I, of gasoline (mainly isooctane, C8H,b)? Given: AjJJ0 of C8H18 = -5460 kj-mok1 , density of isooctane = 0.692 g. mL-1 and the calorific value of hard coal is 32.75 kj g-1.
Answer:

The mass of 2.0 L of gasoline = 2000 x 0.692 g = 1384 g For 1384 g of the gasoline, the number of moles =\(\frac{1384}{114}=12.14\) [molar mass of the gasoline = 114 g. mol-1 [ For the combustion of 1 mol of gasoline, the amount of the liberated heat is 5460 kj. Therefore, the combustion of 12.14 mol of gasoline will produce 5460 x 12.14 kJ of heat. The calorific value of the hard coal is 32.75 kJ. g 1. So, the amount ofthe hard coal that will produce \(5760 \times 12.14 \mathrm{~kJ} \text { of heat is } \frac{5760 \times 12.14}{32.75} \mathrm{~g}=2135.16 \mathrm{~g}\)

Punjab State Board Class 11 Chemistry Solutions For Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Punjab State Board Class 11 Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Thermodynamics

Question 5. One kg of graphite is burnt in a closed vessel. The same amount of graphite is burnt in an open vessel. Will the heat evolved in the two cases be the same? If not, in which case it would be greater?
Answer: Burning of graphite involves the following reaction \(\mathrm{C} \text { (graphite) }+\mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_2(\mathrm{~g})\)

In an open vessel, if a reaction is carried out, it occurs at constant atmospheric pressure. So, in the reaction, the heat change is the same as the enthalpy change (ΔH). The heat change in a reaction carried out in a closed vessel at constant volume is the same as the internal energy change ( Δ17).

For the above reaction, An = 1-1 = 0. Thus, according to the relation, ΔH = ΔU+ΔnRT, we have AH = AU. Therefore, the burning of 1kg of graphite will produce the same amount of heat irrespective of whether the reaction is carried out at constant volume or constant pressures.

Question 6. Can ΔH be taken as the sole criterion of the spontaneity of a reaction? Justify with an example.
Answer: In an exothermic reaction, ΔH is negative. This means that the energy of the system decreases in an exothermic reaction. On the other hand, ΔH is positive for an endothermic reaction, indicating the energy of the system increases in such a reaction.

As enthalpy decreases in an exothermic reaction, it was once thought that only exothermic reactions would be spontaneous. However, there are some chemical reactions for which AH is positive although they were found to occur spontaneously. Therefore, AH cannot be regarded as the sole criterion for determining the spontaneity of reaction.

Question 7. An Intimate mixture of Fe2O3 and ΔA12O3 is used in solid fuel for rockets. Calculate the fuel value per gram and fuel value per cm3 of the mixture.

ΔH<Fe2O3) = 1669,4 kj- mol-1 ,

ΔH(A12O3) = 832.6 kJ-mol-1
Answer: The reaction is 2A1 + Fe2O3→2Fe + A12O3

The enthalpy change in this reaction is \(\begin{aligned}
\Delta H^0 & =\Delta H_f^0\left(\mathrm{Al}_2 \mathrm{O}_3\right)-\Delta H_f^0\left(\mathrm{Fe}_2 \mathrm{O}_3\right) \\
& =(1669-832.6) \mathrm{kJ}=836.4 \mathrm{~kJ}
\end{aligned}\)

The total mass ofthe reactants (2A1 + Fe2O3)

= [2 X 27 + (2 X 55.85 + 3 X 16)] g =213.7 g

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Therefore, the fuel per gram of the mixture

⇒ \(=\frac{836.4}{213.7} \mathrm{~kg} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1}=3.91 \mathrm{~kJ} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{836.4}{213.7} \mathrm{~kg} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1}=3.91 \mathrm{~kJ} \cdot \mathrm{g}^{-1}\)

The volume of the mixture of the reactants

⇒ \(=\left(\frac{2 \times 27}{2.7}+\frac{159.7}{5.2}\right) \mathrm{cm}^3=50.7 \mathrm{~cm}^3\)

Therefore, the fuel value per cm3 ofthe mixture

⇒ \(=\frac{836.4}{50.7} \mathrm{~kJ} \cdot \mathrm{cm}^{-3}=16.49 \mathrm{~kJ} \cdot \mathrm{cm}^{-3}\)

Question 8. In a constant volume calorimeter, 3.5g of gas with molecular mass 28 was burnt in excess oxygen at 298.0 K. The temperature of the calorimeter was found to increase from 298.0 K to 298.45 K, due to the combustion process. Given, that the heat capacity of the calorimeter is 2.5 kj – K-1, what will be the value of enthalpy of combustion of the gas?
Answer: Por a combustion reaction carried out in a constant volume calorimeter, the amount of liberated heat is given by the relation, q = Calx AT.

Ccal = 2-5 W’ K_1 = (298.45- 298) K =0.45 K

Thus, q = 2.5 x 0.45 kl = 1.125 kj

For 3.5 g ofthe gas, the number of moles \(=\frac{3.5}{28}=0.125\)

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Thus, the burning of 0.125 mol ofthe given gas liberates 1.125 kj of heat Hence, the enthalpy of combustion of the gas is \(\frac{1.125}{0.125} \mathrm{~kJ} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}=9 \mathrm{~kJ} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\)

Question 9. If the bond dissociation energies of XY(g), X2(g) and Y2(g) are in the ratio of 1: 1: 0.5 and JH for J the formation of XY(g) is -200 kj.mol-1, then what is will be the bond dissociation energy 7 of X2(g)?
Answer: \(\text { s. } \frac{1}{2} X_2(g)+\frac{1}{2} Y_2(g) \rightarrow X Y(g)\) Suppose, the bond dissociation energy of XY is x. So, the bond dissociation energies of X2 and Y2 will be x and, respectively. For the reaction

⇒ \(\Delta H^0=\Delta H_f^0(\mathrm{XY})-\frac{1}{2} \Delta H_f^0\left(\mathrm{X}_2\right)-\frac{1}{2} \Delta H_f^0\left(\mathrm{Y}_2\right)=-200 \mathrm{~kJ}\)

In terms of bond energies,

⇒ \(\Delta H^0=\left(\frac{1}{2} x+\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{x}{2}\right)-(x)=\frac{3 x}{4}-x=-\frac{x}{4}\)

Therefore, \(-\frac{x}{4}=-200 \mathrm{~kJ}\)

or, x = 800 kJ

Thus, the bond dissociation energy of X2(g) is 800 kJ.mol-1.

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Question 10. For the process H2O(l)⇌H2O(g), ΔH = 40.8 kJ⋅mol‾1 at the boiling point of water. Calculate molar entropy change for vaporization from the liquid phase
Answer: Molar entropy change for vaporisation \(\Delta S=\frac{\Delta H_{v a p}}{T_b}\)

Given ΔHvap = 40.8KJ⋅mol¯1, fr water Tb=373 K

∴ \(\Delta S=\frac{40.8 \times 10^3}{373}=109.38 \mathrm{~J} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1} \cdot \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\)

∴ Molar entropy change for vaporization of water = 109.38 I.K-1.mol-1

Question 11. A gas confined in a cylinder with a frictionless piston is made to expand from 1L to 5L under a constant pressure of 1.5 atm. During the process, 800 J of heat is supplied from an external source. Calculate the change in internal energy of the gas. (1L- atm = 101.3 J)
Answer: We know, w = -Pex ( V2– V1)

∴  ω= -1.5(5- 1 ) = -6 L⋅atm = -6 x 101.3 I = -607.8J

It is also given that q = + 800 1

Using the 1st law of thermodynamics, we have ΔU = q + w = (800- 607.8) J = 192.2J

∴ The change in internal energy of the gas Is 192.2 J

Question 12. Calculate AH0 of the following reaction at 298 K:

⇒ \(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_2(g)+\mathrm{CO}(g)+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{CO}_2 \mathrm{H}(l)\)

Given: \(\begin{array}{r}
\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{CO}_2 \mathrm{H}(l)+3 \mathrm{O}_2(g) \rightarrow 3 \mathrm{CO}_2(g)+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) ; \\
\Delta H^0=-1368 \mathrm{~kJ}
\end{array}\)

⇒ \(\begin{aligned}
& 2 \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_2(\mathrm{~g})+5 \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow 4 \mathrm{CO}_2(\mathrm{~g})+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) ; \Delta H^0=-2600 \mathrm{~kJ} \\
& 2 \mathrm{CO}(\mathrm{g})+\mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_2(\mathrm{~g}) ; \Delta H^0=-566 \mathrm{~kJ} \text { at } 298 \mathrm{~K}
\end{aligned}\)

Answer: ⇒ \(\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_2(g)+\mathrm{CO}(g)+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{CO}_2 \mathrm{H}(l)\)

⇒ \(\begin{aligned}
& 2 \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_2(\mathrm{~g})+5 \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow 4 \mathrm{CO}_2(\mathrm{~g})+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) ; \Delta H^0=-2600 \mathrm{~kJ} \\
& 2 \mathrm{CO}(\mathrm{g})+\mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_2(\mathrm{~g}) ; \Delta H^0=-566 \mathrm{~kJ} \text { at } 298 \mathrm{~K}
\end{aligned}\)

⇒ \(2 \mathrm{CO}(\mathrm{g})+\mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_2(\mathrm{~g}) ; \Delta H^0=-566 \mathrm{~kJ}\)

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Solutions

Multiplying each of the equations [2] and [3] by \(\frac{1}{2}\) and then adding them, we have

\(\begin{array}{r}
\mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_2(g)+3 \mathrm{O}_2(g)+\mathrm{CO}(g) \rightarrow 3 \mathrm{CO}_2(g)+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) ; \\
\Delta H^0=\left[\frac{1}{2}(-2600)+\frac{1}{2}(-566)\right] \mathrm{kJ}
\end{array}\)

Subtracting equation [1] from equation [4], we have \(\begin{aligned}
& \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_2(g)+\mathrm{CO}(g)+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{CO}_2 \mathrm{H}(l) ; \\
& \Delta H^0=\left[\frac{1}{2}(-2600)+\frac{1}{2}(-566)-(-1368)\right] \mathrm{kJ}=-215 \mathrm{~kJ}
\end{aligned}\)

Question 13. For the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g)→+2NH2(g), ΔH and ΔS are -95.4 kj and -198.3 J. K-1 respectively. Assuming ΔH and ΔS are independent of temperature, will the reaction be spontaneous at 500 K? Explain
Answer: we know ΔG-ΔH-TΔS

Given That ΔH = -95.4 Kj and ΔS =-198.3J.K-1

∴ ΔG= AG =-95.4 kJ- 500 K(-198.3 X 10-3 kj.K-1)

= 3.75kj

As ΔG > 0 at 500 K, the reaction will not be spontaneous at 500 K

Question 14. The bond energy of any diatomic molecule is defined to be the change in the internal energy for its dissociation. At 298 K, O2(g)→2O(g) AH = 498.3 kj.mol¯1 . Calculate the bond energy of O2 molecule R = 8.314 J-K-1.mol-1
Answer: Given: O2(g)→2O(g); ΔH = 498.3 kj⋅mol-1
For the above reaction, An = 2-l = l

We know, ΔH = ΔU+ ΔnRT

∴ 498.3 kj = ΔU+1 x 8.314 x 10~3 x 298 kj.

∴ ΔU = 495.82 kJ

Therefore, the bond energy of the O2 molecule = 495.82 kJ

Question 15. State the first law of thermodynamics. An ideal gas of volume 6.0 L was made to expand at constant temperature and pressure of atm by supplying heat. If the final volume of the gas was 12.0 L, calculate the work done and the heat supplied in joule in the process [1L.atm= 101.3J]
Answer: We know, w = -Pex V2– V1

∴ w = -2(12-6) L- atm = -12 L’- atm = -1215.6 J

As the process is isothermal and the system is an ideal gas, AU = 0 for this process. According to the 1st law of thermodynamics, ΔU = q + ω

∴ 0 = q- 1215.61 or, q = + 1215.6J

Question 16. Two moles of an ideal gas were expanded isothermally against a constant opposing pressure of 1 atm from 20 l to 60 complete w,q, E, and H for the process in joule (given 1L. atm = 101.3J)
Answer:

We know, w = -Pex(V2-V1)

∴ \(\begin{aligned}
w=-1(60-20)=-40 \mathrm{~L} \cdot \mathrm{atm} & =-40 \times 101.3 \mathrm{~J} \\
& =-4.052 \mathrm{~kJ}
\end{aligned}\)

For this process ΔE – 0 and ΔH = 0 because the process is isothermal and the system is an ideal gas. As per the first law of thermodynamics, ΔE = q+ w or, 0 = q- 4.052 kJ

∴ q = 4.052 kJ.

Question 17. The latent heat of fusion of ice at 0°C is 80cal/g; Calculate the molar entropy change for the fusion process.
Answer:

We know, \(\Delta S=\frac{\Delta H_f}{T_f}\)

where ΔHf– = latent heat of fusion of a substance and Tf = its melting point.

Now, ΔHf = 80 cal⋅g-1 x 18g = 1440 cal

∴ \(\Delta S=\frac{1440}{273} \mathrm{cal} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}=5.27 \mathrm{cal} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}\)

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Solutions

Question 18. Calculate AG° for the reaction; \(\mathrm{H}_2(\mathrm{~g})+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l)\) at 298K. Given, at 298 K ΔHfº for H2O(1) is -286 kj⋅mol-1 and the molar entropies (S°) for H2 (g), O2(g) and H2O(Z) are 130.7, 69.9 J K-1 . mol-1 respectively.
Answer:

For the given reaction, \(\Delta S^0=S_{\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l)}^0-\left[S_{\mathrm{H}_2(\mathrm{~g})}^0+\frac{1}{2} S_{\mathrm{O}_2(g)}^0\right]\)

⇒ \(=\left[69.9-\left(130.7+\frac{1}{2} \times 205.1\right)\right] \mathrm{J} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}=-163.35 \mathrm{~J} \cdot \mathrm{K}^{-1}\)

Given that ΔHfO[H2O(l)] = -286 kj-mol-1

So, AH° = -286 kJ for the given reaction.

We know, ΔG° = ΔHO -TΔS0

∴ AG° = [-286 x 103- 298(-163.35)] J = -237.32 kj.

Question 19. Above what temperature the following reaction will be spontaneous?
Answer:

We know, ΔG = ΔH-TΔS. A reaction at a given temperature and pressure is spontaneous if AG < 0 for the reaction. Therefore, at a given pressure and a temperature of TK, the reaction will be spontaneous if—

ΔG < 0 or, ΔH- TΔS < 0

∴ \(T \Delta S>\Delta H \text { or, } T>\frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S}\)

Given that, ΔH = 144.6 kj and ΔS = 0.116 kl. K¯1

∴ \(T>\frac{144.6}{0.116} \text { or, } T>1246.55 \mathrm{~K}\).

So, the reaction will be spontaneous above 1246.55 K.

Question 20. Calculate AH ofthe following reaction at 25°C. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g)→2Fe2O3(s) Given: Fe2O3(s) + 3C(graphite)→2Fe(s) + 3CO(g), ΔH = 117.30 kcal C(graphite) + O2(g)→CO2(g) ; AH = – 94.05 kcal \(\mathrm{CO}(g)+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_2(g) \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_2(g) ; \Delta H=67.63 \mathrm{kcal} \text { at } 25^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\)
Answer:

⇒ \(\mathrm{CO}(g)+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_2(g) \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_2(g) ; \Delta H=67.63 \mathrm{kcal} \quad \ldots[1]\)

⇒ \(\mathrm{C} \text { (graphite) }+\mathrm{O}_2(g) \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_2(g) ; \Delta H=-94.05 \mathrm{kcal} \cdots[2]\)

C(graphite) + O2(g)→CO2(g); AH = -94.05 kcal ⋅⋅⋅⋅[2]

Fe2O3(s) + 3C(graphite)→2Fe(s) + 3CO(g)

AH = 117.30 kcal

Multiplying equation [3] by 2 and equation [1] by 6 and adding them together, we have

2Fe2O3(s)+6C(graphite)+3O2(g)→4Fe(s)+6CO2(g)

AH = [2(117.30) + 6(67.63)] kcal

Subtracting equation [4] from the equation obtained by multiplying equations [2] by 6, we have

4Fe(s) + 3O2(g)→2Fe2O3(s) ;

ΔH = 6(-94.05)- [2(117.30) + 6(67.63)] =-1204.68kcal

 

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes For Chapter 3 Motion In A Plane

Chapter 3 Motion In A Plane Important Points

Vector: A physical quantity which has both magnitude and direction is called a vector.

Vector Example: Displacement, Velocity, Force, etc.

Scalar: A physical quantity which has only magnitude is called a scalar.

Scalar Example: Distance, Speed, Work, etc.

Equality Of Vectors: If two vectors are equal both in magnitude and direction are called equal vectors.

Resultant Vector: If the effect of many vectors is represented by a single vector, then that single vector is called the resultant vector.

Read And Learn More Class 11 Physics Notes

Triangle Law: If the magnitude and direction of two vectors are represented by two sides of a triangle taken in order, then the third side of the triangle taken in reverse order will give the resultant both in magnitude and direction.

Motion In A Plane Parallelogram Law

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion In A Plane

From the above figure,

⇒ \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}=\overline{\mathrm{P}}+\overline{\mathrm{Q}}\) represents vectorial addition of \(\overline{\mathrm{P}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{Q}}\).

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes For Chapter 3 Motion In A Plane

Parallelogram Law: If two vectors are represented by the two adjacent sides of a parallelogram, then the diagonal passing through the intersection of those two vectors will represent the resultant both in direction and magnitude.

The other diagonal will represent the difference or subtraction of the vectors \(\bar{R}_1=\overline{\mathrm{P}}-\bar{Q}\)

Motion In A Plane In Parallelogram Law Is Diagonal OB

In the above figure, diagonal OB is the sum of vectors i.e. \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}}\), diagonal AC is | subtraction of vectors i.e. \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}}-\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)

Laws Of Vector Addition:

  1. Vector addition is commutative i.e., \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{B}}+\overline{\mathrm{A}}\)
  2. Vector addition obeys associative law i.e., \((\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}})+\overline{\mathrm{C}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}}+(\overline{\mathrm{B}}+\overline{\mathrm{C}})\)

Unit Vector: If the magnitude of any vector is unity, then it is called a unit vector.

Unit Vector Example: unit vector \(\bar{A}=\frac{\bar{A}}{|\bar{A}|}=1\)

Unit vectors along X and Y directions are represented by \(\bar{i}\) and \(\bar{j}\). In space unit, I vectors along X, Y and Z directions are represented by \(\bar{i}\), \(\bar{j}\) and \(\bar{k}\).

Null Vector: If the magnitude of a vector is zero, then it is called a null vector.

Class 11 Physics Motion In A Plane Notes PSEB

The null vector has only direction.

Null Vector Example: \(\bar{A}\) – \(\bar{A}\) = 0 It has only direction, magnitude is zero.

∴ \(\bar{A}\) x \(\bar{0}\) = \(\bar{0}\) It has only direction, magnitude is zero.

Position Vector: Any vector in a plane can be represented as \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}=A_x \overline{\mathrm{i}}+\mathrm{A}_y \overline{\mathrm{j}}\)

Any vector in space can be represented as \(\bar{A}=A_x \bar{i}+A_y \bar{j}+A_z \bar{k}\)

Where Ax, Ay and Az are magnitudes along X, Y and Z directions.

Resolution Of Vectors: Every vector can be resolved into two mutually perpendicular components. This division is with fundamental principles of trigonometry.

Motion In A Plane Resultant Of Vectors

∴ \(\bar{A}=\vec{A}_x+\bar{A}_y\)

∴ \(\bar{A}=\vec{A}_x \hat{i}+\bar{A}_y \hat{j}\)

Resolution Of Vectors Example: Let A make an angle ‘η’ with the X-axis then

X- component of \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}_{\mathrm{x}}=\overline{\mathrm{OB}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}} \cos \theta\)

Y – component of \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}_{\mathrm{y}}=\overline{\mathrm{OC}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}} \sin \theta\)

Note: If values of A and Ay are given then

Resultant \(\bar{A}=\sqrt{A_X^2+A_Y^2}\)

Angle made by vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) with X-axis

∴ \(\theta=\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{\mathrm{A}_Y}{\mathrm{~A}_{\mathrm{X}}}\right]\)

PSEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Notes

Projectile: When a body is thrown into space with some angle θ (θ ≠ 90°) to the horizontal it moves under the influence of gravity then it is known as projectile.

Note: The path of a projectile can be represented by the equation y = ax – bx². It represents a parabola.

Time taken to reach maximum height \(\mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{v}_0 \sin \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)

Maximum height reached \(h_{\max }=\frac{v_0^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g}\)

Time Of Flight(T): The time interval from the instant of projection to the instant where it crosses the same plane or touches the ground is defined as time of flight.

Time of flight \(\mathrm{T}=\frac{\mathrm{v}_0 \sin \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)

Note: For horizontally projected projectiles \(\mathrm{T}=\frac{\mathrm{v}_0 \sin \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)

Range (Or) Horizontal Range (R): It is the horizontal distance from the point of projection to the point where it touches the ground.

Range \(\mathrm{R}=\frac{2 \mathrm{v}_0^2 \text{Sin} 2 \theta}{\mathrm{g}} \text {; }\)

For horizontal projection \(R=v_0 \sqrt{2 h / g}\)

Uniform Circular Motion: If a body moves with a constant speed on the periphery of a circle, then it is called uniform circular motion.

Time Period: In circular motion time taken to complete one rotation is defined as time period (T).

Time period (T) = 2π/ω

Note: Frequency v = \(\frac{1}{T}\) is equal to number of rotations completed in one second. The relation between ω and ν is ω = 2πν or v = 2πυR.

Relative Velocity In Two-Dimensional Motion: Let two bodies A and B are moving with velocities \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{V}}_{\mathrm{B}}\) then the relative velocity of A with respect to B is \(\vec{V}_{A B}=\vec{V}_A-\vec{V}_B\)

Relative velocity of B with respect to A is \(\vec{V}_{B A}=\vec{V}_B-\vec{V}_A\)

Chapter 3 Motion In A Plane Important Formulae

For (like) parallel vectors say \(\overline{\mathrm{P}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{Q}}\) resultant \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{P}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{Q}}\).

For antiparallel vectors say \(\overline{\mathrm{P}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{Q}}\) resultan \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{P}}\) – \(\overline{\mathrm{Q}}\)

Rectangular components of a vector \(\overline{\mathrm{R}}\) are Rx = R cos θ and Ry = R sinθ

The resultant of vectors Is given by parallelogram law.

  1. Resultant, \((R)=\sqrt{P^2+Q^2+2 P Q \cos \theta}\)
  2. Angle made by Resultant \(\alpha=\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{Q \sin \theta}{P+Q \cos \theta}\right]\)
  3. Difference of vectors = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{P}^2+\mathrm{Q}^2-2 \mathrm{PQ} \cos \theta}\) where θ is the angle between \(\bar{P}\) and \(\bar{Q}\).

Motion In A Plane Angle Made By Resultant

If two vectors \(\bar{a}\) and \(\bar{b}\) are an ordered pair, then from triangle law, the resultant \(\bar{R}\) = \(\bar{a}\) + \(\bar{b}\)

  1. When two bodies A and B are travelling in the same direction ⇒ relative velocity, VR = VA – VB.
  2. Two bodies travelling in opposite directions ⇒ relative velocity, VR = VA + VB
  3. Punjab State Board Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 3

Crossing Of A River In Shortest Path:

  1. To cross the river in the shortest path, it must the rowed with an angle, θ = sin-1 (VWE/VBW) perpendicular to the flow of water.
  2. The velocity of the boat with respect to the earth. \(V_{R E}=\sqrt{V_{P W}^2-V_{W E}^2}\)
  3. Time taken to cross, \(\mathrm{t}=\frac{\text { width of river }(l)}{\text { velocity of boat w.r.t earth }}=\frac{l}{V_{E E}}\)

Crossing The River In the Shortest Time:

  1. Time taken to cross the river, \(\mathrm{t}=\frac{\text { width of river t }}{\text { velocity of boat w.r.t water } \mathrm{V}_{B W}}\)
  2. Resultant velocity of boat, \(V_R=\sqrt{V_{E W}^2+V_{W E}^2}\)
  3. The angle of resultant motion with θ = tan-1 (VWE/VBW) down the stream

Dot Product: \(\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B}=|\bar{A}| \cdot|\bar{B}| \cos \theta\)

Let \(\bar{A}=x_1 \bar{i}+y_1 \bar{j}+z_1 \bar{k}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}=\mathrm{x}_2 \overline{\mathrm{i}}+\mathrm{y}_2 \overline{\mathrm{j}}+\mathrm{z}_2 \overline{\mathrm{k}}\) then

  1. \(\bar{A}+\bar{B}=\left(x_1+x_2\right) \bar{i}+(y_1+ y_2)\bar{j}\) \(+\left(z_1+z_2\right) \bar{k}\)
  2. \(|\bar{A}|=\sqrt{x_1^2+y_1^2+z_1^2}\); \(|\bar{B}|=\sqrt{x_2^2+y_2^2+z_2^2}\).
  3. \(\bar{A} \cdot \bar{B}=x_1 x_2+y_1 y_2+z_1 z_2\)

In dot product \(\overline{\mathrm{i}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{i}}=\overline{\mathrm{j}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{j}}=\overline{\mathrm{k}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{k}}=1\) i.e., dot product of heterogeneous vectors is unity.

In dot product \(\bar{i} \cdot \bar{j}=\bar{j} \cdot k=\bar{k} \cdot \bar{i}=0\)

In dot product \(\overline{\mathrm{i}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{j}}=\overline{\mathrm{j}} \cdot \mathrm{k}=\overline{\mathrm{k}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{i}}=0\) i.e., dot product of heterogeneous vectors is unity.

In dot product \(\overline{\mathrm{i}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{j}}=\overline{\mathrm{j}} \cdot \mathrm{k}=\overline{\mathrm{k}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{i}}=0\)

Projectiles Thrown Into The Space With Some Angle ’θ’ To The Horizontal: Horizontal component (ux) = u cos θ. Which does not change.

Vertical component, uy = u sin θ (This component changes with time)

Time of flight, (T) = \(\frac{2 u \sin \theta}{g}\),

H = \(\frac{u^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g}, \text { Range }(R)=\frac{u^2 \sin 2 \theta}{g}\)

Velocity of projectile, \(v=\sqrt{v_x^2+v_y^2}\) where vx = uy = u cos θ and vy = u sin θ – gt

Angle of resultant velocity with horizontal, \(\alpha=\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{v_y}{v_x}\right]\) where \(v_y=u \sin \theta-g t\) and \(\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{x}}=\mathrm{u} \cos \theta\)

In the projectile range, R is the same for complementary angles (θ and 90- θ).

For θ = 45°, Range is maximum

⇒ \(R_{\max }=\frac{u^2}{g}\) corresponding to \(h_{\max }=\frac{u^2}{4 g}\)

Relation between \(R_{\max }\) and \(h_{\max }\) is \(R_{\max }\) = 4 \(h_{\max }\)

For complimentary angles of projection, \(\mathbf{h}_1+\mathbf{h}_2=\frac{\mathbf{u}^2}{2 \mathrm{~g}}\);

Punjab State Board Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 3

Range, \(\mathrm{R}=4 \sqrt{\mathbf{h}_1 \mathbf{h}_2} ; \mathrm{R}_{\max }=2\left(\mathrm{~h}_1+\mathrm{h}_2\right)\)

Horizontally Projected Projectiles: Time of flight, \(t=\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\)

Range, R = u x t = u \(\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\)

Motion In A Plane Horizontally Projected Projectiles

Velocity of projectile after a time t is, \(\mathrm{v}=\sqrt{\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{x}}^2+\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{y}}^2}\) where \(\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{x}}=\mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{x}}=\mathrm{u}\) and \(\mathrm{v}_{\mathrm{y}}=\mathrm{gt}\)

∴ \(\mathrm{v}=\sqrt{\mathrm{u}^2+\mathrm{g}^2 \mathrm{t}^2}\)

The angle of resultant with X – axis, \(\alpha=\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{v_y}{v_x}\right]\) where \(v_x=u\) and \(v_y=g t\)

∴ \(\alpha=\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{g t}{u}\right]\)

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes For Chapter 4 Laws Of Motion

Laws Of Motion Laws Of Motion Important Points

Force: Force is that which changes or tries to change the state of a body. Force is a vector.

D.F = MLT-2, Unit : Newton(N)

Newton’s Laws of Motion:

1st Law: Everybody continues to be in its state of restored uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled by some external force.

Inertia: It is the property of the body to oppose any change in its state.

Simply inertia means resistance to change. The mass of a body ‘m’ is a measure of the inertia of a body.

2nd Law: The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the applied force and takes place in the direction in which the force acts.

Note: Internal forces cannot change the momentum of the body or system.

⇒ \(\mathrm{F} \propto \frac{\mathrm{d} \overline{\mathrm{p}}}{\mathrm{dt}}, \quad \frac{\mathrm{d} \overline{\mathrm{p}}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\mathrm{m} \frac{\mathrm{dv}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) or F = k.ma

Momentum(\(\overline{\mathbf{p}}\)): It is the product of the mass (m) and velocity(v) of a body.

Momentum(\(\overline{\mathbf{p}}\)) = mass x velocity = m \(\overline{\mathbf{v}}\)

It is a vector, unit: Kg – m/sec. D.F = MLT-1

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 4 Laws Of Motion

Impulse: When a force acts between two bodies in contact for a very short time then the product of force and time is defined as Impulse.

Impulse = Force x time = F.t,

Impulse = change in momentum

Impulse is a vector. Unit: Kg-m/sec,

D.F. = MLT-1

Read And Learn More Class 11 Physics Notes

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes For Chapter 4 Laws Of Motion

Some Observations Of Momentum:

  1. If equal force is applied to two bodies of different masses the body with less mass will gain more velocity and the body with more mass will gain less velocity. But the change in momentum is the same for both bodies.
  2. To stop a fast-moving cricket ball abruptly we require a large force. Whereas if we move our hands along the direction of motion of the ball we require less force to stop it.
    • I = Ft; \(F \propto \frac{1}{t}\)
  3. From the 2nd Law, internal forces cannot change the momentum of the system.

Example: If a bullet is fired from a gun bullet moves out with high speed and the gun recoils with less speed. Here momentum of the bullet and the gun are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. The algebraic sum of the momentum of the gun and bullet is zero. So internal forces cannot change the momentum of the system.

Newton’s 3rd Law: For every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction.

Class 11 Physics Laws Of Motion Notes

action =  -reaction

Note: The third Law gives the nature of force. It indicates that force never occurs singly in nature. So if reaction is not possible then reaction is also not possible.

Some Important Observations Of The 3rd Law:

  1. Generally, action and reaction will act on two different systems. So motion is possible.
    • Example: When a horse pulls a carl, the horse applies force on the carl. Whereas Cart applies the reaction on the ground so motion Is possible.
  2. In some cases action and reaction apply on the same system then the body is in equilibrium. In this case, motion is not possible.
    • Example: When you sit on a bench or chair force(F = ma) equal to your weight is applied on the bench or chair called action. At the same time, the chair or bench will apply an equal amount of force on you as a reaction. In this case, the person and bench or chair are in equilibrium and motion is not possible.

Law Of Conservation Of Momentum: Under the absence of external force, “The total momentum of an isolated system of interacting particles is conserved” i.e., the total momentum of the system is constant.

Friction: It is a contact force parallel to the surfaces in contact. Friction will always oppose relative motion between the bodies.

Normal Reaction(N): When two bodies are one over the other, force applied by the lower body on the bottom layers of the upper body is called normal reaction.

On a horizontal surface normal reaction N = mg weight of upper body.

Laws Of Motion Normal Reaction

On an inclined surface normal reaction N = mg cos θ

Laws Of Motion Inclined Surface Normal Reaction

Motion Of A Car On A Horizontal Road: On a horizontal road when a car Is in circular motion three forces will act on it. They are (1) the weight of the car(mg) (2) normal reaction (N) (3) Frictional force(f).

In this type of motion friction between the road and the gives necessary centripetal force.

For a safe journey centripetal force must be equal to Frictional force i.e., \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^2}{\mathrm{R}}=\mu \mathrm{mg}\)

Safe velocity of car \(\mathrm{v}=\sqrt{\mu \mathrm{gR}}\)

Static Friction: Friction between two bodies at rest is called static friction.

Static friction does not exist by itself. It will come into account when a force forces to develop motion between the bodies.

PSEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 Notes

Laws Of Static Friction:

  1. Static Friction does not exist independently i.e. when external force is zero static friction is zero.
  2. The magnitude of static friction gradually increases with applied force to a maximum value called limiting static friction(fs)max
  3. Static friction opposes impending motion.
  4. Static friction is independent of the area of contact.
  5. Static friction is proportional to normal reaction.

∴ \(\left(\mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{s}}\right)_{\max } \mu \mathrm{N} \text { (or) }\left(\mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{s}}\right)_{\max }=\mu_{\mathrm{s}} \mathrm{N}\)

Kinetic Friction(fk): Frictional force that opposes relative motion between moving bodies is called kinetic friction.

Laws Of Kinetic Friction: When a body begins to slide on the other surface static friction abruptly decreases and reaches a constant value called kinetic friction.

  1. Kinetic friction is independent of the area of contact.
  2. Kinetic friction is independent of the velocities of moving bodies.
  3. Kinetic friction is proportional to normal reaction N.

∴ \(f_k \mu N \text { (or) } f_k=\mu_k N\)

Rolling Friction (fr): When a body is rolling on a plane without slip then contact forces between the bodies are called rolling friction. It opposes rolling motion between the surfaces.

Laws Of Rolling Friction:

  1. Rolling friction will develop a point of contact between the surface and the rolling sphere. For objects like wheels line of contact will develop.
  2. Rolling friction(fr) has the least value for a given normal reaction when compared with static friction(fs) or kinetic friction (fk).
  3. Rolling friction is directly proportional to normal reaction, fr = μ N.
  4. In rolling friction, the surfaces in contact will get momentarily deformed a little.
  5. Rolling friction depends on the area of contact. Due to this reason, friction increases when air pressure is less in these (Flattened tires).

Advantages Of Friction:

  1. We are able to walk because of friction.
  2. It is impossible for a car to move on a slippery road.
  3. The braking system of vehicles works with the help of friction.
  4. Friction between roads and tires provides the necessary external force to accelerate the car. Transmission of power to various parts of a machine through belts is possible by friction.

Disadvantages Of Friction:

  1. In many cases, we will try to reduce friction because it dissipates energy into heat.
  2. It causes wear and tear to machine parts

Methods To Reduce Friction:

  1. Lubricants are used to reduce friction.
  2. Ball bearings are used between moving parts of the machine to reduce friction. A thin cushion of air maintained between solid surfaces reduces friction.

Example: Air pressure in tires.

Ball Bearings: Ball bearings will convert sliding motion into rolling motion due to their special construction. So sliding friction is converted into rolling friction. Hence friction decreases.

Banking Of Roads: In a curved path the outer edge of the road is elevated with some angle ‘θ’ to the horizontal. Due to this arrangement centripetal force necessary for circular motion is provided by gravitational force.on vehicle.

Angle of banking \(\theta=\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{\mathrm{v}^2}{\mathrm{rg}}\right)\)

Safe velocity on a banked road \(V_{\text {max }}=\sqrt{g R \tan \theta}\)

Motion Of A Caron A Banked Road: When a road is banked driving will become safe and the safe velocity of vehicles will also increase. The safe velocity of the vehicle on a banked road \(\mathrm{v}=\sqrt{g R \tan \theta}\)

Due to baking wear and tear of tyres will decrease. Driving is also easy.

Punjab State Board Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 4

Laws Of Motion Laws Of Motion Important Formulae

Momentum, \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\) = mass x velocity

From Newton’s Second law, \(F \propto \frac{d \vec{P}}{d t}=m \frac{d \bar{v}}{d t} \Rightarrow F=m a=m \frac{(v-u)}{t}\)

When a body of mass ’m’ is taken in a lift move with acceleration ‘a’

1. Moving in upward apparent weight,

∴ \(\mathrm{W}_1=\mathrm{m}(\mathrm{g}+\mathrm{a}) \Rightarrow \mathrm{W}_1=\mathrm{W}\left(1+\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{g}}\right)\)

2. Moving downwards with acceleration ‘a’ apparent weight,

∴ \(W_1=m(g-a) \Rightarrow W_1=W\left(1-\frac{a}{g}\right)\)

Note: Apparent weight Is also called the reaction offered by floor N.

Frictional force(F) ∝ Normal reaction(N) i.e., F ∝ N.

Coefficient of friction, \(\mu=\frac{\text { Frictional force }}{\text { Normal reaction }}\)

⇒ \(\mu=\frac{F}{N}\)

On Horizontal Surface

Normal reaction, N = mg = weight of the body.

On An Inclined Plane

Normal reaction, N = mg cos θ

θ = Angle of inclination of the plane.

The tangent of the angle of repose (tan θ) is equal to the “coefficient of friction”.

∴ μ = tan θ

Acceleration of a body on smooth horizontal, \(a=\frac{F}{m}=g \sin \theta\)

Acceleration of a body on a rough horizontal plane, \(a=\frac{F}{m}-\mu_k g\)

k = Kinetic friction and F is the force applied).

Note: If \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{m}}<\mu_{\mathrm{k}} \mathrm{g}\) then then cody does not move.

Smooth Inclined Plane:

1. For Downward Motion:

Downward acceleration, a = g sinθ

Velocity on reaching the bottom, \(v=\sqrt{2 g l \sin \theta}=\sqrt{2 g h}\)

Time is taken to reach the bottom, \(t=\sqrt{\frac{2 l}{g \sin \theta}} \Rightarrow t=\frac{v}{g \sin \theta}\)

Where ‘v’ = velocity on reaching the bottom of the inclined plane.

Punjab State Board Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 4

2. For Upward Motion:

Upward acceleration, a = – g sin θ

If ‘u’ Is the Initial velocity time of ascent on an inclined plane, \(t=\frac{u}{g \sin \theta}\)

(But initial velocity to reach the top, \(\mathrm{u}=\sqrt{2 \mathrm{~g}l \sin \theta}\)

Time taken to reach the top \(\mathrm{t}=\frac{\sqrt{2 g l \sin \theta}}{\mathrm{g} \sin \theta}=\sqrt{\frac{2 l}{\mathrm{~g} \sin \theta}}\)

Motion On A Rough-Inclined Plane:

1. For Downward Motion:

Downward acceleration,

a = g(sinθ- μk cos θ)

Velocity on reaching the bottom, \(\mathrm{v}=\sqrt{2 \mathrm{~g} l\left(\sin \theta-\mu_{\mathrm{k}} \cos \theta\right)}\)

Time taken to slide down, \(\mathrm{t}=\sqrt{\frac{2 l}{\mathrm{~g}\left(\sin \theta-\mu_{\mathrm{k}} \cos \theta\right)}}\)

2. For Upward Motion:

Upward acceleration, \(a=\frac{F}{m}-g\left(\sin \theta+\mu_k \cos \theta\right)\)

(If \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{m}}<\mathrm{g}\left(\sin \theta-\mu_{\mathrm{k}} \cos \theta\right)\) then the body does not move)

Time taken just to reach the top of the plane, \(t=\frac{u}{g\left(\sin \theta+\mu_k \cos \theta\right)}\)

The minimum velocity required at the bottom just to reach the top of the inclined is \(\mathrm{u}=\sqrt{2l \sin \theta \mathrm{g}\left(\sin \theta+\mu_{\mathrm{k}} \cos \theta\right)}\)

or \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{hg}\left(\sin \theta+\mu_{\mathrm{k}} \cos \theta\right)}\)

Minimum force required to pull the body up the plane,

p = mg (sin θ +μs cosθ)

μs = coefficient of static friction.

Motion Of Lawn Roller:

When pulling the lawn roller of mass m with a force F

  1. Horizontal component useful for motion, Fx = F cosθ
  2. Normal reaction, N = mg- F sin θ.

When the lawn roller is pushed with force F

  1. The horizontal component of force, Fx = F cos θ
  2. Normal reaction, N = mg + F sin θ

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes For Chapter 1 Units And Measurements

Chapter 1 Units And Measurements Important Points

Fundamental Quantity: A fundamental quantity is one which is unique and freely existing. It does not depend on any other physical quantity.

Fundamental Quantity Example: Length (L), Time (T), Mass (M), etc.

Fundamental Quantities In SI System: In the SI system length, mass, time, electric current, thermodynamic temperature, amount of substance, and luminous intensity are taken as fundamental quantities.

Derived Quantity: A derived quantity is produced by the combination of fundamental quantities (i.e., by division or by multiplication of fundamental quantities).

Read And Learn More Class 11 Physics Notes

Derived Quantity Example:

Velocity = \(\frac{\text { displacement }}{\text { time }}=\frac{\mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{T}}\)

or \(\mathrm{LT}^{-1}\)

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 1 Units And Measurements

Acceleration = \(\frac{\text { change in velocity }}{\text { time }}\)

= \(\frac{\mathrm{LT}^{-1}}{\mathrm{~T}}=\mathrm{LT}^{-2}\) etc.

Unit: The standard which is used to measure the physical quantity is called the ’Unit’.

Fundamental Unit: The units of the fundamental quantities are called the “fundamental units”.

Fundamental Unit: Length → Meter (m), Mass → Kilogram (kg), Time → Second (sec) etc.

Basic Units Or Fundamental Units Of SI System: The basic units in S.I. system are Length → meter (L), Mass → kilogram (kg), Time → second (s); electric current → ampere (amp), Thermodynamic temperature → Kelvin (K); Amount of substance → mole (mol); Luminous intensity candela (cd); Auxilliary units: Plane angle → Radian (rad); Solid angle → steradian (sr)

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes For Chapter 1 Units And Measurements

Derived Units: The units of derived quantities are known as “derived units”.

Derived Units Example: Area → square meter (m²), Velocity → meter/sec (m/s) etc.

International System Of Units (S.I. Units): The S.I. system consists of seven fundamental quantities and two supplementary quantities. To measure these quantities S.I. system consists of several fundamental or basic units and two auxiliary units.

Accuracy: Accuracy indicates the closeness I of a measured value to the true value of the quantity. If we are very close to the true value then our accuracy is high.

Precision: Precision depends on the least measurable value of the instrument. If the least measurable value is too low, then the precision of that instrument is high.

Precision Example: The least measured value of vernier calipers is 0.1 mm

The least count of the screw gauge is 0.01 mm.

Among these two, the precision of the | screw gauge is high.

Error: The uncertainty of measurement of a physical quantity is called “error”.

Class 11 Physics Units And Measurements Notes

Systematic Errors always tend to be in one direction i.e., positive or negative. For systematic errors, we know the reasons for the error. They can be reduced by proper correction or by proper care.

Systematic Errors Example:

  1. Zero error in screw gauge and
  2. A faulty calibrated thermometer

Systematic Errors Are Classified As:

  1. Instrumental Errors
  2. The Imperfection of The Experimental Technique
  3. Personal Errors.
  1. Instrumental Errors: These errors arise due to the imperfect design or faulty calibration of instruments.
    • Instrumental Errors Example: Zero error in screw gauge.
  2. Imperfection Of Experimental Technique: These errors are due to the procedure followed during the experiment or measurements.
    • Imperfection Of Experimental Technique Example:
      • Measurement of body temperature at armpit
      • Simple pendulum oscillations with high amplitude.
  3. Personal Errors: These errors arise due to an individual’s approach or due to lack of proper setting of apparatus.
    • Personal Errors Example: Parallax error is a personal error.

Methods To Reduce Systematic Errors:

Systematic Errors can be minimized by improving experimental techniques, by selecting better instruments, and by removing personal errors.

Random Errors: These errors will occur irregularly. They may be positive (or) negative in sign. We cannot predict the presence of these errors.

Random Errors Example:

  1. Voltage fluctuations in the power supply
  2. Mechanical vibrations in the experimental setup.

Least Count Error: This is a systematic error. It depends on the smallest value that can be measured by the instrument.

Least count error can be minimized by using instruments of the highest precision.

Arithmetic Mean: The average value of all the measurements is taken as arithmetic mean.

Let the number of observations be a1, a2, a3 …… an

Then the arithmetic mean \(a_{\text {mean }}=\frac{a_1+a_2+a_3+\ldots \ldots \ldots+a_n}{n}\)

or \(a_{\text {mean }}=\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{a_1}{n}\)

PSEB Class 11 Physics Chapter 1 Notes

Absolute Error (|Δa|): The magnitude of the difference between the individual measurement and the true value of the quantity is called the absolute error of the measurement.

It is denoted by |Δa|

Absolute error |Δa| = |amean-a1| = |True value – measured value|

Mean absolute error (Δamean):  The arithmetic mean value of all absolute errors is known as mean absolute error.

Let ‘n’ measurements are taken, then| their absolute errors are,

say \(\left|\Delta \mathrm{a}_1\right|,\left|\Delta \mathrm{a}_2\right|,\left|\Delta \mathrm{a}_3\right| \ldots . . \Delta \mathrm{a}_{\mathrm{n}} \mid\), then

or, \(\left|\Delta \mathrm{a}_{\text {mean }}\right|=\frac{\left|\Delta \mathrm{a}_1\right|+\left|\Delta \mathrm{a}_2\right|+\left|\Delta \mathrm{a}_3\right|+\ldots \ldots \ldots+\left|\Delta \mathrm{a}_{\mathrm{n}}\right|}{n}\)

then \(\Delta \mathrm{a}_{\text {mean }}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}} \sum_{\mathrm{i}=1}^{\mathrm{n}} \Delta \mathrm{a}_{\mathrm{i}}\)

Relative Error: Relative error is the ratio of the mean absolute error A a to the mean value a mean of the quantity measure.

Relative Error = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{a}_{\text {mean }}}{\mathrm{a}_{\text {mean }}}\)

Percentage Error (δa): When relative error is expressed in percent then it is called per] centage error.

Percentage Error \((\delta \mathrm{a})=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{a}_{\text {mean }}}{\mathrm{a}_{\text {mean }}} \times 100\)

Significant Figures: The scientific way to report a result must always have all the reliably known (measured) values plus one uncertain digit (first digit). These are known as “significant figures”.

This additional digit indicates the uncertainty of measurement.

Significant Figures Example: In a measurement, the length of a body is reported as 287.5 cm. Then, In that measurement. the length is believable up to 287 cm

i. e., the digits 2, 8, and 7 are certain. The first digit (5) is uncertain. Its value may change.

Rules For Determining Significant Numbers:

  1. All the non-zero digits are significant.
  2. All the zeros in between two non-zero digits are significant. ‘
  3. If the number is less than one, the zeros on the right of the decimal point to the first non¬zero digit are not significant.
    1. Example: In a result of 0.002308 the zeros before the digit ‘2’ are nonsignificant.
  4. The terminal or trailing zeros in a number without a decimal point are not significant.
    • Example: In the result, 123 m = 12300 cm = 123000 mm the zeros after the digit ‘3’ are not significant.
  5. The trailing zeros in a number with a decimal point are significant.
    • Example: In the result 3.500 or 0.06900 the last zeros are significant. So a number of significant figures is four in each case.

Rules For Arithmetic Operation With Significant Figures:

In Multiplication Or Division, the final result should retain as many significant figures as are there in the original number with the least significant figures.

In Multiplication Or Division Example: In the division \(\frac{4.327}{2.51}\) the significant figures are 4 and 3, so the least significant figures are ‘3’.

∴ \(\frac{4.327}{2.51}\) = 1.69 i.e., the final answer must have only ‘3’ significant digits.

Punjab State Board Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 1

In Addition Or Subtraction, the final result should retain as many decimal places as are there in the number with the least decimal places.

In Addition Or Subtraction Example: 436.26g + 227.2 g Here least number of significant figures after the decimal point is one.

∴ 436.26 ÷ 272.2 = 708.46 must be expressed as 708.5 (after rounding off the last digit).

Rounding Off The Uncertain Digits:

Rules For Rounding Off Procedure: In rounding off the numbers to the required number of significant digits the following rules are followed.

  1. The preceding significant digit is raised by one if the first non-significant digit is more] than 5.
  2. The preceding significant digit is left unchanged if the first non-significant digit | is less than 5.
  3. If the first non-significant figure is 5, then
    • If the preceding significant figure is an odd number, then add one to it.
    • If the preceding significant figure is an even number, then it is unchanged and 5 is discarded.

Dimension: The power of a fundamental quantity in the given derived quantity is called dimension.

Dimension Example: Force dimensional formula MLT-2

Here dimensions of Mass → 1, Length → 1, Time → 2

Dimensional Formula: It is a mathematical expression giving a relation between various fundamental quantities of a derived physical quantity.

Punjab State Board Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 1

Dimensional Formula Example: Momentum (\(\overline{\mathrm{P}}), \mathrm{MLT}^{-1}\), Energy \(\mathrm{ML}^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\) etc.

Uses Of Dimensional Methods:

  1. To convert units from one system to another| system.
  2. To check the validity of given physical equations. For this purpose, we will use homoge-1 neity of dimensions on L.H.S and on R.H.S.
  3. To derive new relations between various physical quantities.

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes Chapterwise

  • Chapter 1 Units and Measurements Notes
  • Chapter 2 Motion in a Straight Line Notes
  • Chapter 3 Motion in a Plane Notes
  • Chapter 4 Laws of Motion Notes
  • Chapter 5 Work, Energy and Power Notes
  • Chapter 6 System of Particles and Rotational Motion Notes

PSEB Class 11 Physics Notes Chapterwise

  • Chapter 7 Gravitation Notes
  • Chapter 8 Mechanical Properties of Solids Notes
  • Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Fluids Notes
  • Chapter 10 Thermal Properties of Matter Notes
  • Chapter 11 Thermodynamics Notes
  • Chapter 12 Kinetic Theory Notes
  • Chapter 13 Physical World Notes
  • Chapter 14 Oscillations Notes
  • Chapter 15 Wave Notes

Structure Of Atom Class 11 Important Questions

Question 1. Find the number of waves formed by a Bohr electron in one complete revolution in its second orbit.
Answer: Number of waves

⇒ \(=\frac{\text { circumference of the orbit }}{\text { wavelength associated with the moving electron }}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{2 \pi r}{\lambda}=\frac{2 \pi r}{(h / m v)}\)

Since \(\lambda=\frac{h}{m v}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{2 \pi}{h} \times(m v r)=\frac{2 \pi}{h} \times \frac{n h}{2 \pi}=n\)

So the number of waves formed in the second orbit = 2

Question 2. Show that an orbital cannot accommodate more than two electrons in it.
Answer:

Each electron present in an atom is expressed by four quantum numbers. Again, according to Pauli’s exclusion principle, no two electrons in an atom can have the same values for all four quantum numbers (n, l, m, and s).

Now for a certain orbital, the quantum numbers n, l, and m have definite values. So, the electrons present in that orbital must have different values for the spin quantum number. But the spin quantum number ‘s’ has only two possible values.

These are \(+\frac{1}{2} \text { and }-\frac{1}{2}\)

Structure of Atom Class 11 Important Questions

Hence, the maximum that can be accommodated in an orbital is 2. For example, values of the quantum numbers of two electrons in Is -orbital no. of electrons are as follows—

Class 10 ScienceClass 11 Chemistry
Class 11 ChemistryTransformation of Sentences
Class 8 MathsClass 8 Science

Question 3. Mention the similarity and dissimilarity that exist in the significance, conveyed by the given two sets of quantum numbers
Answer:

In the given sets of quantum numbers n and l have identical values. So, two orbitals as indicated by these two sets of quantum numbers belong to the same principal energy level (shell) and also to the same subshell.

As the orbitals belong to the same sub-shell (viz., d -subshell), they will have the same energy.

However, because of the difference in their values of magnetic quantum numbers, they will have different orientations in space.

Under the influence of a magnetic field, the electrons present in these two orbitals will differ in their energy content.

Read And Learn More Class 11 Chemistry Solutions

Question 4. Write the values of quantum numbers of all the electrons in the 3Li -atom.
Answer:

Number of electrons of 3Li -atom = 3. Therefore, its electronic configuration: ls22s1.

Now, for Is -subshell, n = 1 , l = 0 and m = 0 and for 2s -subshell, n = 2 , l = 0 and m = 0.

Therefore, the values of the quantum numbers of the 3 electrons ofLi-atom are:

Structure of Atom Class 11 Important Questions

Structure Of Atom Class 11 Important Questions

Question 5. Identify all the quantum numbers of the electrons in the -subshell of a carbon atom.
Answer:

Atomic number of carbon = 6.

∴ Its electronic configuration: ls22s22p2

In case of 2p -subshell, n = 2, l = 1 and m = -1 , 0 , +1 .

Thus it appears that, the maximum number of electrons that may be present in 2p -subshell = 6.

But this subshell of carbon contains only 2 electrons.

According to Hund’s rule, these 2 electrons will remain in two separate orbitals as odd electrons, each of which will have the same spin.

Therefore, the values of n, l, m, and s of these 2 electrons will be

Question 6. Identify the orbitals having the following quantum numbers using the symbols s, p, d, f:

  1. n=4, l=2
  2. n=3,l=1
  3. n=2, l=0
  4. n=5, l=3
  5. n=1,l=0
  6. n=3,l=2

Answer: For s, p, d, and /-orbitals, the respective values of azimuthal, quantum number, l are 0, 1, 2, and 3.

Again the principal energy levels are designated by the values of the principal quantum number.

On the basis of their information, the orbitals characterized by the given quantum numbers have been identified.

  1. n = 4 , l = 2: 4d orbital
  2. n = 3, l = 1 : 3p orbital
  3. n = 2,f = 0:2s orbital
  4. n = 5, l = 3: 5f orbital
  5. n = 1 , l = 0 : Is orbital
  6. n = 3 , Z = 2: 3d orbital

Question 7. Explain why 2d -and 3/-orbitals do not exist.
Answer:

For an orbital designated by 2d, quantum numbers will have the values of n = 2 and 1 = 2.

But for n = 2d can have the values of 0 and 1. So 2D -orbital has no real existence.

For 3f orbital, n = 3 and 1 = 3. But for n = 3, l will have

Question 8. If the uncertainty in position and momentum of a particle of mass ‘m’ are equal, then ascertain the minimum uncertainty in its velocity.
Answer:

⇒ \(\Delta x \cdot \Delta p\frac{h}{4 \pi}\)

Or, \(\Delta p \cdot \Delta p\frac{h}{4 \pi}\)

Or, \(\Delta p\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{h}{\pi}}\)

Or, \(m \times \Delta v \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{h}{\pi}}\)

Or, \(\Delta v \frac{1}{2 m} \sqrt{\frac{h}{\pi}}\)

So the minimum uncertainty in its velocity

⇒ \(=\frac{1}{2 m} \sqrt{\frac{h}{\pi}}\)

Question 9. Isotopes of a certain element are identical in their chemical properties—why? Atomic spectra of elements are called fingerprints—why? What are isosters? Give example.
Answer:

Isotopes

Isotopes of an element have the same number of protons in their nucleus and the same number of electrons in the extranuclear part.

Thus, they have the same electronic configuration in their valance shell and hence identical chemical properties.

The atomic spectra (line spectra) of each element are unique. The line spectra of the two elements resemble each other. Hence, these are regarded as the fingerprints of the elements and thus help in their identification.

Molecules or ions with the same number of atoms and also the same number of electrons are said to be sisters.

Example: CO and N2 form a pair of isosters (each molecule contains 2 atoms and 14 electrons).

Question 10. Which of the following relationships directly expresses Bohr’s concept of a hydrogen atom? E = hv, \(m v r=\frac{n n}{2 \pi}\) in) E = me2, E2-E1 = hv \(\lambda=\frac{h}{m v}.\) A = A.mv Write the values of Planck’s constant in CGS and SI units. Indicate the mass of the photon. Are all photons associated with the same quantity of energy?
Answer:

The following two relationships directly express Bohr’s concept in the case of hydrogen atoms:

\(\text { (2) } m v r=\frac{n h}{2 \pi} \text { and (4) } E_2-E_1=h v\)

Relation (2) states that an electron revolves around the nucleus only in those permitted orbits for which the angular momentum is an integral multiple of \(\)

Relation (4) expresses the idea that whenever an electron jumps from one stationary orbit to another, there is either an emission or absorption of energy which is equal to the difference of the energies associated with the two orbits.

Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 x 10-27 erg-s (in CGS unit) = 6.626 x 10-34 J-s (in SI unit)

In the case of light radiation, a quantum is called a photon. Again a quantum means a definite small amount of energy. So, the photon has no mass. It denotes only a definite but small amount of energy,

The energy associated with a quantum radiation [i.e., a photon) is given by E = hv (where v = frequency of radiation).

Since different radiations have different characteristic values of their frequencies, the energy of all photons cannot be the same. For example, the energy of a photon of blue light is greater than that of red light, since; Ared > Ablue or Ablue < Ared

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom Questions

Question 11. Calculate the no. of electrons, protons & neutrons present in ammonium ion phosphate Ion. Name a species that Is isosteric with N20.
Answer:

1 ammonium ion \(\left(\mathrm{NH}_4^{+}\right)\)

= 1 N-atom +4 H-atoms -1 electron.

∴ Total number of electrons present in the ion = 7 + 4 x1-1 =10

Number of protons = 7 + 4×1 =11

Number of neutrons = (14-7) + 4×0 =7

1 phosphate ion \(\left(\mathrm{PO}_4^{3-}\right)\)

= 1 P-atom+4 O-atoms +3 electrons

∴ Total number of electrons associated with P04

ion = 15 + 4×8 + 3=50

Number of protons = 15 + 4 x 8 = 47

Number of neutrons = (31- 15) + 4(16- 8) = 48

A species isosteric with N20 isC02

Question 12. “Electron is an essential constituent of atoms of all elements” —explain. Why was it necessary to consider the existence of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom? Write the nuclear reaction related to the discovery of neutrons.
Answer:

“Electron is an essential constituent of atoms of all elements”

The value of charge (e ) and mass (m ) of the electron always remain the same irrespective of the source of their emission.

In the discharge tube experiment, the e/m ratio for the negatively charged particles (electrons) constituting the cathode rays was found to be the same irrespective of the nature of the cathode or the nature of the gas taken in the discharge tube.

Thus it can be said that electron is the essential constituent of all atoms.

After the discovery of proton and electron as subatomic particles, the mass of a proton on an atomic scale has been taken as 1 unit and the mass of an electron as zero.

Under this condition, with the exception of ordinary hydrogen, the atomic mass of no other element could be explained in terms of the number of protons present in the atom of an element.

For example, the atomic mass of sodium =23(H = 1) i.e., an atom of sodium is 23 times heavier than a proton. But it has been proved that the atom of sodium contains only 11 protons which can only account for 11 units of mass.

In order to explain the difference of (23-11) = 12 units of mass, the assumption of the presence of a neutral sub-atomic particle of unit mass in the atom became a necessity.

Nuclear reaction associated with the discovery of neutron \({ }_4^9 \mathrm{Be}+{ }_2^4 \mathrm{He} \longrightarrow{ }_6^{12} \mathrm{C}+{ }_0^1 n.\)

Question 13. What is meant by line spectra of atoms? How many lines are observed in the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum? Calculate the wave number of the first line.
Answer:

line spectra of atoms

When an electric discharge is passed through a gaseous element enclosed in a discharge tube under low pressure and the emitted light is analyzed by a spectroscope, the spectrum consists of a large number of lines (with different frequencies) which are grouped into different series. The complete spectrum obtained is known as line spectra or atomic spectra.

In the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum, four lines are obtained: Ha [red], Hg [bluish green], (blue), and Hg (violet). The series consisting of these lines is called the Balmer series.

The equation for wave number in the hydrogen spectrum is given by,

\(\bar{v}=R\left[\frac{1}{n_1^2}-\frac{1}{n_2^2}\right], R=1.09678 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~cm}^{-1}\)

For the first line in the Balmer series, n1 = 2, n2 = 3

∴ \(\bar{v}=1.09678 \times 10^5\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{3^2}\right)=1.09678 \times 10^5\left(\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{9}\right) \mathrm{cm}^{-1}\)

\(=1.09678 \times 10^5 \times \frac{5}{36}=1.5733 \times 10^4 \mathrm{~cm}^{-1}\)

Question 14. Write three differences between electromagnetic waves and matter waves. Show that the circumference of the ‘ n ‘th electronic orbit is ‘ n’ times the de Broglie wavelength of the wave associated with the motion of the electron i.e., 2nrn = nX.
Answer:

According to Bohr’s theory, the angular momentum of a revolving electron in the nth orbit is given by,

\(m v r_n=\frac{n h}{2 \pi} \quad \text { or, } m v=\frac{n h}{2 \pi r_n} \cdots[1]\)

Again according to the de-Broglie equation,

\(\lambda=\frac{h}{m v} \quad \text { or, } m v=\frac{h}{\lambda} \cdots[2]\)

From equations [1 ] and [2] we have \(\frac{n h}{2 \pi r_n}=\frac{h}{\lambda} \text { or, } 2 \pi r_n=n \lambda \text { (Proved) }\)

Structure of Atom Class 11 Questions and Answers

Question 15. Give electronic configurations of the following species and show which of these contain the same number of electrons: Cl-, N3″, P3 “, K+, Na+, Mg2+, Ar, S2-, Ne, 02~, Al3+, Ca2+. In an atom of an inert gas, the difference between the number of p -electrons and s -electrons is equal to the number of d -electrons present in that atom. Identify the inert gas and indicate its atomic number.
Answer:

So, N3-, Na+, Mg2+, O2-, Ne, and Al3+ have the same number of electrons (10), so they are isoelectronic. The electronic configuration of each of them ls22s22p6.

Again, Cl “, P3-, K+, Ar, S2-, and Ca2+ have the same number of electrons (18), so they are isoelectronic. Their electronic configuration is:

\(1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^6 3 s^2 3 p^6\)

The inert gas is krypton (Kr) whose atomic number is 36, and has an electronic configuration:

ls22s22p63s23p63d104s24p6

Total number of s -electrons = 8 and total number of p -electrons = 18

∴ Difference in the number of s and p -electrons = 18- 8 = 10 = number of d -electrons.

Question 16. What is the maximum number of electrons present in subshell (s), for which n + l = 3? Will the p -electrons present in the N -atom have the same energy? What is the effect of the magnetic field on these electrons?
Answer:

According to the given conditions, If n = 3, then 1 = 0 (since n + l = 3). These two values of quantum numbers indicate 3s -subshell. 3s subshell can hold a maximum of 2 electrons.

Again, if n = 2, then l = 1 (since n + l = 3). These two values of quantum numbers denote 2psubshell. 2p -subshell may contain a maximum of 6 electrons.

So, a total of (2 + 6) = 8 electrons will be present in subshells for which n + l = 3.

The electronic configuration of N-atom (atomic number = 7 ) is given by: ls22s22p3. The electrons present in the p -subshell will occupy singly px, py, and pzorbitals respectively, i.e., they remain unpaired.

As these are degenerate orbitals, the energy ofthese three electrons will be the same.

As px, py, and pz -orbitals have different orientations in space, the effect of the magnetic field on the electrons present in these orbitals becomes different.

Consequently, it causes a difference in energy. Because of this difference in energy, fine splitting of the spectral lines occurs.

Hence, it may be stated that under the influence of the applied magnetic field, the energies of the electrons of the N-atom become different.

Structure of Atom Class 11 Questions and Answers

Question 17. How would you show that the maximum number 4 0 +1 +i of electrons that can be accommodated in an orbit with a principal quantum number is 2n2? In an atom, the 4f-subshell is completely filled up with electrons. How many electrons in that sub-shell will have the value zero for their magnetic quantum number?
Answer:

The electrons, revolving around the nucleus in an atom, are described by four quantum numbers [viz., n, l, m, and s ]. For a given value of (n), (l) can have n values [these are / = 0, 1, 2…..(n-1)]. This shows that the number of subshells present in the ‘ n ’ th orbit = n.

Again the number of orbitals present in any subshell =(2/+l). Moreover, each orbital may contain a maximum of 2 electrons. Based on this concept, the maximum number of electrons that a particular principal energy level can accommodate can be calculated.

Thus for the principal quantum number’ n values of l =0,1,2…..(n-1). For 1 = 0, number oforbitals present = 2×0 + 1 = 1 For1=1, number oforbitals present = 2×1 + 1 = 3 For 1 = 2 , number oforbitals present = 2×2 + 1 = 5 For / = (w — 1) , number of orbitals present = 2(n- 1) +1 = (2n- 1).

∴ Total number of orbitals in n -th energy level

=l+3+5+7+ … + (2n- 1)

\(=\frac{n}{2}\{1+(2 n-1)\}=n^2\)

Thus the total number of electrons in ‘ n ‘th energy level = n2 x 2 = 2n2.

For the f-sub-shell, l = 3, and for l = 3, possible values of m = -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3 This shows that the f-subshell consists of 7 orbitals.

Out of these, only one orbital is associated with magnetic quantum number, m = 0. This orbital has the capacity to accommodate a maximum of 2 electrons.

Question 18. One predicts the following sets of quantum numbers for some of the electrons present in an atom. State with reasons, which are permissible and which are not. The mass number of an element is twice its atomic number. 2p-subshell of the atom of that element contains 4 electrons. Find the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons present in that atom. What is the valency of that element?
Answer:

Among the given sets of quantum numbers only and are possible but are not permitted.

n = 2, / = 2, m = +2, s = \(+\frac{1}{2}\)

If n = 2 then 1 has only two possible values 0 and 1.

So, the value of 1 cannot be 2.

n = 4, l = 0, m = +1 , s = \(+\frac{1}{2}\)

If l= 0, m = +1 is not possible.

n = 3,l= 2,m = +1,s = 1 ; the value of s may be either +- or . It can never have the value 1.

n = 5, l = 4, m = —3 , s = \(+\frac{1}{2}\)

In the case of this set of quantum numbers, the values of n, /, m, and s are quite consistent.

n = 0, l = 0 , m = 0, s = \(-\frac{1}{2}\) ; The value of the principal quantum number n can never be zero.

n = 1,1-0, m = 0 , s = \(+\frac{1}{2}\)

Values of n,l, m, and s are consistent.

According to the given condition, the electronic configuration ofthe element is lsz2sz2pÿ2pj,2p’.

So, the atomic number of that element is 8. Obviously, the element is oxygen.

O-atom can attain stable electronic configuration by accepting two electrons in its outermost shell. So, its valency is 2.

So, as given in a mass number of the element = 2×8 = 16. Hence, the number of neutrons =16-8 = 8. Number of electrons =8.

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Structure of Atom Questions

Question 19. Why does 2p -subshell have the capacity to accommodate more electrons than 2s -publicly? Arrange the following sets of electrons in order of decreasing energy.

  1. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = \(+\frac{1}{2}\)
  2. n = 3, l = 1,
  3. m = 1 , s = -i
  4. n = 3, / = 2, m = 0, s = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  5. n = 3 , Z = 0, m = 0, s = \(-\frac{1}{2}\)

Which is the lowest principal energy level that permits the existence of the ‘g’ sub-shell?
Answer: For s -sub-shell,l = 0. So, the number of orbitals in this sub-shell =21+1 = 2×0+1 =1.

  • An orbital can accommodate a maximum of 2 electrons.
  • So, the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in 2s -sub-shell = 2.
  • Again for p -subshell, 1 = 1. So, the number of orbitals in this sub-shell = 21+ 1 =2x 1 + 1 =3.
  • Maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in 2p -sub-shell =2×3 = 6
  • So, 2p -subshell contains more electrons than 2s.

The relative order of energies of various sub-shells can be predicted by the following rules:

A sub-shell with the lower value of (n + /) has lower energy, If two sub-shells have an equal value of (n + l), the sub-shell with a lower value of n has lower energy.

So, we have the following sequence of energies of the electrons: (c) > (a) > (b) > (d) (3)

For the ‘g’ sub-shell, the azimuthal quantum number 1 = 4.

Thus the lowest principal energy’ level that permits the existence of g -sub-shell is given by, n = /+ 1 =4+ 1 = 5.

Question 20. Give sets of quantum numbers for describing all the electrons present In the 3p -subshell. What do you mean by nucleon?
Answer:

3p -subshell may contain a maximum of 6 electrons. For orbitals of the 3p -sub-shell, n = 3 and 1 = 1. Again for 1 = 1, the values of m are -1, 0, and +1. Furthermore, for each value of m, s may have two values \(\left(+\frac{1}{2} \text { and }-\frac{1}{2}\right)\)

The sub-atomic particles present in the nucleus i.e., protons and neutrons are commonly called nucleons.

Question 21. In a neon (Nc) atom, how many electrons are there that spin in hi anti-clockwise direction? For how many electrons of Cl-atom, n + l = 3?
Answer:

Electronic configuration of Ne (atomic no. = 10 )

Each ofthe 5 orbitals (Is, 2s, 2px, 2py, 2pz) present in the Ne atom contains one electron pair each, as displayed by its electronic configuration.

But one of the two electrons in each orbital spins in the clockwise direction while the other spins in the anti-clockwise direction. Out ofthese 10 electrons, 5 electrons spin in the anti-clockwise direction.

Electronic configuration ofCl: ls22s22p63s23p5 In case of electrons in Is -subshell n + l =1 + 0=1 In case of 2 electrons in 2s -subshell, n + l = 2 + 0 = 2 In case of 6 electrons in 2p -subshell, n + l = 2 + 1 = 3 In case of2 electrons in 3s -subshell, n + l = 3 + 0 = 3 In case of5 electrons in 3p -subshell, n + l = 3 +1 = 4 It is observed that in case of 6 electrons in 2p -sub¬ shell and 2 electrons in 3s -sub-shell, the value of n + l will be equal to 3.

Question 22. Electronic configurations of the outermost shell of the atoms of some elements are given below. From these identify the elements and write their atomic numbers.

  1. 3s2 ,
  2. 3p4 ,
  3. 2p4 ,
  4. 3p6 ,
  5. 5p5

Electronic configuration of the atom: ls22s22p63s2
∴ Total number of electrons = 12 = number of protons = atomic number.

So, the element is magnesium (Mg). It has a valency of 2 because it can donate two electrons from the outermost shell to attain a stable inert gas-like electronic configuration.

Electronic configuration of the atom: ls22s22p63s23p4

Total number of electrons = 16 = number of protons = atomic number.

So, the element is sulfur (S). It has valency 2 because it can gain two electrons in the outermost shell to attain an inert gas like electronic configuration.

Electronic configuration ofthe atom: ls22s22p4

∴ Total number of electrons =8 = number of protons = atomic number.

So, the element is oxygen. It has a valency of 2 because it can gain two electrons in the outermost shell to attain inert gas like electronic configuration.

Electronic configuration: ls22s22p63s23p6

Total number of electrons = 18 = number of protons = atomic number.

So, the element is argon (Ar). Outermost shell of this element is fully filled with electrons. It is an inert gas having valency.

From the outermost electronic configuration of the atom it is clear that it has a total of2(lst shell) +8 (2nd shell) +18 (3rd shell) +18 (4th shell) +7 (5th shell) = 53 electrons.

So it has 53 protons in the nucleus, indicating that its atomic number is 53. The element must be iodine with a valency of 1.

PSEB Class 11 Chemistry Structure of Atom Questions

Question 23. Calculate the difference in radius between the first and third orbit of the hydrogen atom.
Answer:

The radius of n th orbit of H-atom is given by,

rn = 0.529 x n2 A

∴ r3-r1 = 0.529 X (32- 12)A = 0.529 X 8 = 4.232A.

The difference in radius between the first and third orbit of the hydrogen atom = 4.232A.

Punjab State Board Life Processes Class 10 Science Question and Answers

Punjab State Board Class 10 Biology Chapter Life Processes Question and Answers

Question 1. What is translocation? How does it take place in plants?
Answer:

Translocation

Translocation is the transport of food and other solutes in the phloem of plants. It occurs from the region of manufacture or storage to the area of consumption in a mass flow due to the development of a turgor gradient.

Question 2. Leakage from blood vessels reduces the efficiency of the pumping system. How is leakage prevented?
Answer:

Leakage from blood vessels reduces the efficiency of the pumping system

In the area of leakage, blood platelets burst to release thromboplastin. It helps in the formation of a fibrin network in which blood cells accumulate to seal the area.

Read And Learn More 10th Class Science Solutions

Question 3. Mention the two main components of the transport system in plants. State one function of each.
Answer:

The two main components of the transport system in plants

  1. Plants have two components in their transport system, the xylem and phloem. Xylem transports sap (water and minerals) by means of its tracheary elements of vessels and tracheids.
  2. The movement is unidirectional from root to aerial parts. Phloem transports food by means of its sieve tubes both in the upward and downward directions.

Punjab State Board Life Processes Class 10 Science

Punjab State Board Life Processes Class 10 Science Question and Answers

Question 4. Give reason :

  1. Ventricles have thicker walls than the atria
  2. Capillaries have one-cell thick walls.

Answer:

  1. Atria receive blood from veins and pump the same in two adjacent ventricles. Ventricles have to pump blood forcefully in order to send it to different parts of the body.
  2. Capillaries are meant for the exchange of materials between tissue fluid and blood.

Question 5. How are O2 and CO2 transported in human beings?
Answer:

Both are transported through blood. Oxygen travels in a combined form with haemoglobin as oxyhaemoglobin. Carbon dioxide is transported both in plasma (77%) as well as combined with haemoglobin (23%).

Punjab State Board Life Processes Class 10 Science

Question 6.

  1. What is the role of fibrinogen?
  2. How is blood clotting useful?

Answer:

  1. Fibrinogen terms insoluble fibrin that polymerises and produces a network as the base of blood clots.
  2. It seals the place of injury in the blood vessel. As a result, blood loss from the injured blood vessel stops.

Question 7. What do you mean by double circulation? Why is it necessary?
Answer:

Double circulation

Double circulation is the passage of the same blood twice through the heart in order to complete one circulation. One step is the passage of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs and the return of oxygenated blood to the left auricle.

The second is the pumping of oxygenated blood to the rest of the body and the return of deoxygenated blood to the right auricle.

PSEB Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Life Processes Solutions

Importance.

  1. It provides for thorough oxygenation of the whole deoxygenated blood in the lungs.
  2. It ensures the supply of completely oxygenated blood to all body parts for their efficient working and thermoregulation.

Punjab State Board Question 8. List three kinds of blood vessels and their functions.
Answer:

Capillaries, arteries and veins.

Capillaries.

  1. Exchange of materials between blood and tissue fluid.
  2. Filtering out tissue fluid.
  3. Diapedesis for killing germs.

Artery,

  1. Supply of oxygenated blood to all body parts
  2. Sending deoxygenated blood to lungs for oxygenation

Veins.

  1. Carrying deoxygenated blood from various body parts to the heart.
  2. Carrying of oxygenated blood from lungs to heart.

Punjab State Board Life Processes Class 10 Science

Question 9.

  1. What is the composition of blood?
  2. How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in our bodies?

Answer:

  •  Composition of Blood. Plasma (55%) and blood cells (45%). Blood cells are of three types—erythrocytes, leucocytes and blood platelets.
  • Oxygen is transported as oxyhaemoglobin (97%) and a small quantity dissolved in plasma.
  • Carbon dioxide is transported as carbaminohaemoglobin (23%), bicarbonate (70%) and carbonic acid (7%) in plasma.

Life Processes Class 10 Question and Answers PSEB

Question 10. What is translocation? Why is it essential for plants? Where are the substances translocated by phloem delivered?
Answer:

Translocation

Translocation. It is the passage of food and other solutes from the region of their source to the region of their sink or utilisation.

  1. Requirement. Every cell requires food for its subsistence while food is available only from the region of manufacture and storage.
  2. Delivery. Though every cell requires food, the major areas of delivery of food materials are growing regions, growing fruits and storage regions.

Question 11. Explain why is transportation of materials is necessary in animals.
Answer:

Animals have specialised regions for digestion of food, exchange of gases and elimination of wastes.

  • However, every cell of the body requires food materials and oxygen. It also produces carbon dioxide and wastes.
  • Therefore, a transport system (blood circulatory system) is required to pick up nutrients from the digestive tract, oxygen from the lungs, and hormones from endocrine glands for supply to cells.
  • The transport system also collects carbon dioxide and wastes to take them to the lungs and kidneys.

Question 12. Give one function each of

  1. Blood vessels
  2. Lymph and
  3. Heart.

Answer:

  1.  Blood Vessels. Transport of blood from heart to body parts and back, exchange of materials between blood and tissue fluid in the region of capillaries.
  2. Lymph. It collects extra tissue fluid, secretions and excretions from the tissues for pouring into blood.
  3. Heart. It pumps oxygenated blood to different body parts and deoxygenates to the lungs.

PSEB Class 10 Biology Life Processes Notes

Question 13. Write three types of blood vessels. Give one important feature of each.
Answer:

Three types of blood vessels

The three types of blood vessels are capillaries, arteries and veins.

  1. Capillaries. Very fine tubes with walls made of single layers of cells. They are specialised in exchanging materials with tissue fluid.
  2. Arteries. They have thick elastic walls with narrow lumen. Arteries carry blood away from the heart. They usually possess oxygenated blood, except for pulmonary arteries.
  3. Veins. They have thin walls, and internal valves, with wide lumen carrying usually deoxygenated blood towards the heart, except pulmonary veins.

Question 14. Define the term transpiration. Design an experiment to demonstrate this process.
Answer:

Transpiration

Transpiration is the loss of water in vapour form from the aerial parts of the plants.

Experiment.

  1. Take a well-watered potted plant,
  2. Cover it shoot system with a transparent polythene sheet. Tie the edges of the sheet properly with thread.
  3. Place the apparatus in bright sunlight for 30-45 minutes,
  4. Observe the appearance of water droplets on the inner side of the polythene covering,
  5. Apparently, the shoot has lost water in vapour form which has condensed.

Question 15. What is transpiration? List its two functions.
Answer:

Transpiration. It is the loss of water in vapour form from the aerial parts of the plants.

Functions.

  1. Transpiration creates a force for absorption and ascent of water.
  2. It prevents overheating of plants exposed to strong sunlight.

Question 16. List two types of transport systems in human beings and write the functions of any one of them.
Answer:

Blood circulatory system and lymphatic system.

Functions of Blood Circulatory System.

  1. Transport of oxygen.
  2. Transport of carbon dioxide.
  3. Transport of digested food.
  4. Transport of waste products.
  5. Transport of hormones.
  6. Transport of salts.
  7. Plugging place of injury.
  8. Protection from pathogens.

Functions of Lymphatic System.

  1.  Transport of digested fat from the intestine and later passage into the blood.
  2. It maintains blood volume by draining extra tissue fluid and passing it into the blood.

Punjab Board Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Solutions

Question 17. List four functions of the human heart. Why is double circulation necessary in the human body?
Answer:

Functions of Heart.

  1.  Receiving deoxygenated blood from various parts of the body in the right auricle.
  2. Pumping the deoxygenated blood into the lungs for oxygenation.
  3. Receiving oxygenated blood from lungs in left auricle.
  4. Pumping the oxygenated blood to all parts of the body.

Double Circulation. It is the passage of the same blood twice through the heart, once for complete oxygenation and afterwards supply of pure oxygenated blood to all parts human of the body. It meets the high energy requirement of the body for thermoregulation and high activity.

Question 18. What is haemoglobin? State the consequences of deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies.
Answer:

Haemoglobin

  1. Haemoglobin is a respiratory pigment of the body. It is present inside the red blood corpuscles. Haemoglobin combines with oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin. As oxyhaemoglobin, it reaches all parts of the body.
  2. Oxygen separates from haemoglobin and diffuses into the tissue fluid and then into living cells where it is being consumed in respiration. Haemoglobin also carries a smaller amount of carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs.
  3. Deficiency. A deficiency of haemoglobin, also called anaemia results in less supply of oxygen to tissues that produce lesser energy so that all activities of the body slow down.

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Question and Answers

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Question and Answers

Question 1. Mention two laws (for the classification of elements), which were proposed before Mendeleev?
Answer:

Dobereincr’s law of triads and Newland’s law of octaves.

Question 2. Write the 11JPAC name and the symbol of the element with atomic number 108.
Answer:

Unniloctium; Uno.

Question 3. What are the names given to eka-aluminum and cka-silicon predicted by Mendeleev?
Answer:

The names of these elements are Gallium and Germanium respectively.

Read And Learn More Class 11 Chemistry Solutions

Question 4. Mention the number of periods and groups in the long form of the periodic tabs.
Answer:

7 periods and 18 groups

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Question and Answers

Question 5. Mention the name of the s -block element which is placed along with the p -block elements.
Answer:

Helium (He, Is2).

Class 10 ScienceClass 11 Chemistry
Class 11 ChemistryTransformation of Sentences
Class 8 MathsClass 8 Science

Question 6. To which group of the long form of the periodic table do the chalcogens belong?
Answer:

The chalcogens belong to group 16.

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Question 7. Write the general electronic configuration of the inner- [transition elements.
Answer:

⇒ \((n-2) f^{1-14}(n-1) d^{0-1} n s^2 \text {. }\)

Question 8. Write the atomic number of the element placed just below cobalt (Z = 27) in the modern periodic table
Answer:

The atomic number of the element is 27 + 18 = 45.

Question 9. Indicate the position of the element having electronic configuration Is22sz2p63s23p63d34s2 in the periodic table.
Answer:

4th period and 15th group in the periodic table

Question 10. What is the total number of elements incorporated now in the periodic table? Write down the name and symbol of the last element.
Answer:

The total number of elements incorporated in the periodic table is 118. The name of the last element is Ununoctium and its symbol is Uuo (Z = 118).

Question 11. Which group of the periodic table contains solid, liquid & gaseous elements? What are those elements?
Answer:

Solid, liquid, and gaseous elements are present in group- 17(VIIA). These elements are fluorine (gas), chlorine (gas), bromine (liquid), iodine (solid) and astatine (solid).

Question 12. Which element is the most electronegative
Answer:

Fluorine is the most electronegative of all the elements.

Question 13. Name one property that is not periodic
Answer:

The radioactivity of an element is not a periodic property.

Question 14. Arrange according to the instructions given in the bracket:

  • O, Te, Se, S (Increasing order of electronegativity)
  • Na, Cu, Zn (Increasing order of electropositive character)
  • I, F, Br, CI (Increasing order of metallic character)
  • I, F, Br, Cl (Decreasing order of electron affinity)
  • Na, K, F, Cl, Br (Increasing order of atomic radius)
  • Mg, AI, Si, Na (Increasing order of ionization potential)
  • PbO, MgO, ZnO (increasing order of basic character)
  • Na+, Mg2+, Al3+ (Decreasing order of size)
  • Cu, S, C (graphite) (Increasing order of electrical conductivity)
  • Be, C, B, N, 0 (Increasing order of electron affinity)
  • Cl, Mg, C, S (Increasing order of electronegativity)
  • A1203, P205, CI207, S03 (Increasing order of acidic property)
  • MgO, ZnO, CaO, Na20, CuO (Increasing order of basic property)
  • Na+, F-, O2-, Mg2+, N3- (Increasing order of ionic radii)
  • B —Cl, Ba—Cl, Br —Cl, Cl —Cl (Increasing order of bond polarity)
  • Br, F, Cl, I (Increasing order of oxidizing property)
  • Na, Cs, K, Rb, Li (Increasing order of atomic volume)
  • Sb203, N20g, AS203 (Increasing order of acidic property)

Answer:

  • Te < Se < S < O
  • Cu< Zn< Na
  • F < Cl < Br <I
  • Cl > F > Br >I
  • F < Cl < Br < Na < K
  • Na<Al<Mg<Si
  • ZnO < PbO < MgO
  • Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
  • S < C(graphite) <Cu
  • Be<N<B<C<0
  • Mg < C = S < Cl
  • A1203 < P205 < S03 < C1207
  • CuO < ZnO < MgO < CaO < Na20
  • Mg2+ < Na+ < F- < 02- < N3-
  • Ba —Cl > B —Cl > Br —Cl > Cl —Cl
  • I < Br < Cl < F
  • Li < Na < K < Kb < Cs
  • Sb203 < AS203 < N205

Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Question 15. Name the elements having the highest and lowest ionization enthalpy.
Answer:

Highest value: Helium (He), Lowest value: Cesium (Cs).

Question 16. What do you mean by the statement—the covalent radius of H-atom is 0.37 A?
Answer:

It indicates that one-half of the internuclear distance between two bonded H-atoms in an H2 molecule is 0.37 A.

Question 17. Indicate the similarity observed in the electron-gain enthalpy values of Mg and N.
Answer:

Both Mg and N have positive electron-gain enthalpy values.

Question 18. Why is the size of F- smaller than that of O2- ion? {
Answer:

O2- and F- ions are isoelectronic, but their nuclei contain 8 and 9 protons respectively.

So, the nuclear attractive force acting on the electrons of the F- ion is greater than that on the electrons of the O2- ion. Consequently, the F- ion is smaller than the O2- ion.

Question 19. Compare the radii of K+ and Cl- ions (each contain the same number of electrons)
Answer:

The nuclei of the isoelectronic ions K+ and Cl- contain 19 and 17 protons respectively. So the magnitude of nuclear attractive force acting on the electrons of K+ ions is greater than that on the electrons of Cl- ion. Consequently, the radius of the K+ ion is smaller than that of the Cl- ion.

Question 20. What do you understand by a negative value of electron-gain enthalpy of an element?
Answer:

Negative value of electron-gain enthalpy of an element

It signifies that energy is released when an isolated gaseous atom of the element under consideration accepts an electron to form a monovalent gaseous anion.

Question 21. The electronic configuration of the atom of an element is ls22s22p63s23px. Locate its position in the periodic table. Is it a metal or non-metal? What is its valency?
Answer:

The atonibre receives its last electron in 3p -orbital. So it belongs to p -block elements. Accordingly, its group number = 10 + no. of electrons in the valence shell = 10 + (2 + 1)= 13.

Again, the period of the element = several principal quantum numbers ofthe valence shell = 3.

It is a metal because it belongs to the 13th group of the periodic table. Valency of the element = number of electrons in the valence shell =2+1 = 3.

Question 22. The atomic numbers of elements A, B, and C are 10, 13, & 17 respectively. Write their electronic configurations. Which one of them will form a cation and which one an anion? Mention their valencies.
Answer:

Electronic configuration of 10A: ls22s22p6 electronic configuration of 13B: ls22s22p63s23p1

Electronic configuration of 17C: ls22s22p63s23p5

The element, A belonging to group 18, is an inert gas.

So it will form neither a cation nor an anion. The element B, belonging to group 13, is a metal. It will readily form a cation by the loss of 3 electrons from its valence shell (3rd shell).

The element C will readily gain one electron in its outermost 3rd shell to attain inert gas electronic configuration (Is2……3s23p6). So, C will form an anion.

Valency of A = 0 (it has a complete octet of electrons in the outermost shell). Valency of B = 3 (by the loss of 3 electrons from the 3rd shell it will attain stable inert gas electronic configuration).

Valency of C = 1 (because by the gain of the electron, it can attain stable inert gas configuration).

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Questions and Answers

Question 23. A, B, and C are three elements with atomic numbers group (8 + 2) = 10. 17, 18, and 20 respectively. Write their electronic configuration. Which one of them is a metal and which one is a non-metal? What will be the formula of the compound formed by the union of A and C? What may be the nature of valency involved in the formation of the above compound?
Answer:

Electronic configuration of 1A: ls22s22p63s23p5

Electronic configuration of 10B: ls22s22p63s23p6

Electronic configuration of 2QC: ls22s22p63s23p64s2

Element C is a metal as it can easily form a dipositive ion by the loss of two electrons from 4s -orbital. ElementA is a non-metal as it can achieve inert gas configuration by accepting one electron in a 3p -subshell.

As already mentioned, the element C can easily, form a dipositive cation (C2+), while the element A readily forms a uninegative anion (A-).

So the elements A and C can combine to form the compound CA2.

The above-mentioned compound is electrovalent because it will be formed by the union of two A-ions with one C2+ ion.

Question 24. Outer electronic configuration of 4 elements are as given below follows: 3d°4s1 3s23p5 4s24p6 Electronic configuration of 10A: ls22s22p6 3d84s2. Find their positions in the periodic table
Answer:

This element (3d°4s1) is an s -block element. So it is an element of the 4th period in group-1.

This element (3s23p5) is a p -block element containing (2 + 5) or 7 electrons in the valence shell (n = 3). Soitis an element ofthe 3rd periodin group (10 + 2 + 5) = 17.

This element (4s24p6) is a p -block element containing (2 + 6) or 8 electrons in the valence shell (n = 4). So it is an element of the 4th period in group (10 + 2 + 6) = 18.

This element (3d84s2) is a d -block element containing 8 electrons in the d -orbital of the penultimate shell (n = 3) and 2 electrons in s -the orbital of the valence shell (n = 4). So, it is an element of the 4th period in group (8+2)=10

Question 25. Write the electronic configuration of the element with atomic number 35. What will be the stable oxidation states of the element?
Answer:

Electronic configuration: ls22s22p63s23p63d104s24p5. The most stable oxidation state is -1 because it can accept one electron to achieve inert gas configuration (Is2… 3d104s24p6).

Again in an excited state, it can also exhibit oxidation numbers +3 or +5 by forming a covalent bond by using its 3 or 5 odd electrons in its outermost shell.

image-

Question 26. justify by mentioning two reasons, the inclusion ofCa and Mgin the same group of the periodic table.
Answer:

Both Ca and Mg have similar electronic configurations. Both of them belong to s -block.

Electronic configuration of Mg: ls22s22p63s2 Electronic configuration of Ca: ls22s22p63s23p64s2

Both are typical divalent metals and form stable ionic compounds, e.g., MgCl2, CaCI2; MgO, CaO.

Question 27. Cu, Ag & Au are regarded as transition elements. Why?
Answer:

Despite having filled d -orbitals (d10), copper, silver, and gold are considered transition elements because at least in one stable oxidation state of the atoms of these elements, d -orbital is partially filled with electrons, For example, the electronic configuration of Cu2+ is ls22s22p63s23p63d94s°.

Question 28. Write down electronic configuration of the element having atomic number 21. Name two other elements of the same series to which this element belongs. Why do they belong to the same series?
Answer:

Electronic configuration ofthe element (Atomicnumber= 21): ls22s22p63s23p63d14s2 From the electronic configuration, it can be said that the element belongs to the first transition series as its 3d -orbital is partially filled. Two other elements belonging to this series are Cr(24) and Mn(25). The 3d -orbitals of these elements are also partially filled.

Their electronic configurations are—

  1. Cr: ls22s22p63s23p63d54s1
  2. Mn: ls22s22p63s23p63d54s2

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Questions and Answers

Question 29. Can Cu (At. no. 29) and Zn (At. no. 30) be called transition elements? Explain.
Answer:

Although the Cu -atom in its ground state does not contain an incompletely filled d-orbital, Cu2+ has a partially filled d-orbital and so it is a transition element.

Electronic config. of Cu: ls22s22p63s23p63d104s1

Electronic config. of Cu2+: ls22s22p63s23p63d94s°

In the ground state orin any stable oxidation state of Zn, the d orbital is filled. So,it is not a transition element.

Electronic config. of Zn: |lsÿ2$22p63s23p63d104s2

Electron Config. of Zn: 2’tI?lls22sÿ2p63s23p63d104s0

Question 30. The atomic numbers of three elements A, B, and C are 9, 13, and 17 respectively.

  1. Write their electronic configuration.
  2. Ascertain their positions in the periodic table.
  3. Which one is most electropositive and which one is most electronegative?

Answer: Electronic configurations of gA: ls22s22p5, 13B: ls22s22p63s23p1, 17C: ls22s22p63s23p5

All three elements are p -block elements. Hence, their group and period numbers are as follows:

Question 27. Cu, Ag & Au are regarded as transition elements. Why?
Answer:

Despite having filled d -d-orbitals (d10), copper, silver, and gold are considered transition elements because at least in one stable oxidation state of the atoms of
these elements, the -orbital is partially filled with electrons, For example, the electronic configuration of Cu2+ is ls22s22p63s23p63d94s°.

Question 28. Write down the electronic configuration of the element having atomic number 21. Name two other elements of the same series to which this element belongs. Why do they belong to the same series?
Answer:

Electronic configuration ofthe element (Atomicnumber= 21): ls22s22p63s23p63d14s2

From the electronic configuration, it can be said that the element belongs to the first transition series as its 3d-orbital is partially filled.

Two other elements belonging to this series are Cr(24) and Mn(25). The 3d -orbitals of these elements are also partially filled.

Their electronic configurations are—

  1. Cr: ls22s22p63s23p63d54s1
  2. Mn: ls22s22p63s23p63d54s2

Question 29. Can Cu (At. no. 29) and Zn (At. no. 30) be called transition elements? Explain.
Answer:

Although the Cu -atom in its ground state does not contain an incompletely filled d-orbital cu2+ has a partially filled d-orbital and so it is a transition element.

Electronic config. of Zn: sÿ2s22p63s23p63d104s2

Electron Config. of Zn2+: lls22sÿ2p63s23p63d104s0

 

Question 30. The atomic numbers of three elements A, B, and C are 9, 13, and 17 respectively. Write their electronic configuration. Ascertain their positions in the periodic table. Which one is most electropositive and which one is most electronegative?
Answer:

Electronic configurations of gA: ls22s22p5, 13B: ls22s22p63s23p1, 17C: ls22s22p63s23p5

Periodicity in Properties Class 11 Chemistry Solutions

All three elements are p -block elements. Hence, their group and period numbers are as follows:

table-

Element B can easily donate 3 electrons from its outermost shell to attain a stable inert gas configuration. So, it is the most electropositive element.

Elements A and C are electronegative because they can accept one electron to attain a stable inert gas electronic configuration.

These elements (A and C) have similar outer electronic configurations (ns2np5) but the size of A is smaller than that of C. So, the electronegativity of A is greater than that of C. Hence, A is the most electronegative element.

Question 31. Why is the atomic size of Ca2+ smaller than that of K+?
Answer:

K+ and Ca2+ are isoelectronic (each contains 18 electrons). K+ contains 18 protons in its nucleus and Ca2+ contains 20 protons.

Number of protons being in the Ca2+ ion, the electrons in the outermost shell of the Ca2+ ion will experience greater attractive force by the nucleus compared to K+. Consequently, Ca2+ has a smaller ionic size than K+ ions.

Question 32. The atomic radius of a chlorine atom is 0.99 A but the ionic radius of chloride (Cl-) is 1.81 A—explain.
Answer:

In an anion, the total number of electrons being greater than that of the number of protons, attraction of the nucleus for the outermost electrons decreases.

Furthermore, due to mutual repulsion among electrons, the outermost orbit gets appreciably expanded.

As a result, the anionic radius becomes more than the radius of the parent atom. On account of this, the radius of Cl- (1.81 A) (18 electrons and 17 protons) is greater than the radius ofchlorine (0.99 A) atom (17 electrons and 17 protons).

Question First ionization energy of elements increases with atomic numbers of the elements in a period—why? Cite an exception.
Answer:

In any period, with an increase in atomicnumber, the magnitude of the positive charge of the nucleus increases, but there is no addition of any new shell.

In consequence, the attractive force of the nucleus for the outermost electrons increases. So, the amount of energy required for the removal of an electron from the outermost shell of the atom (z.e., first ionization energy) in any period increases with the increase in atomic number.

An exception to this generalization is the nitrogen-oxygen pair. In the second period, oxygen belonging to group VIA has a lower value of first ionization energy than nitrogen of group. The reason can be ascribed to the stable electronic configuration of the nitrogen atom (ls22s22p3)

Question 34. The ionization potential of O is less than that of N— explain.
Answer:

The ionization potential of O is less than that of N

The reason for such a difference may be explained on the basis oftheir electronic configurations filled, its electronic configuration is highly stable.

So, a large amount of energy is required to form an N+ ion by the removal of a 2pelectron.

On the other hand, the formation of 0+ ion by removal of one electron from a partially filled 2p -orbital requires less energy, since the 2p -orbital of 0+ion is half-filled, the electronic configuration assumes stability. Hence, oxygen has a lower ionization potential than nitrogen.

Periodicity in Properties Class 11 Chemistry Solutions

Question 35. Explain why the ionization potentials of inert gas are very high while that of alkali metals are very low. ses are
Answer:

Outermost shells of inert gases contain octets of electrons. Besides this, each of the inner shells of inert gas elements is filled.

Such configuration is exceptionally state conversion of a neutral inert gas atom into its ions try removal of an electron from the outermost shell requires large energy. As a result, they have high ionization potentials.

Configuration of the outermost and penultimate shell of alkali metals is {n-l)s2(n-1)p6nsl (except Li ).

Thus the loss of 1 electron from their outermost shell brings about a stable configuration of inert gases. Hence, the conversion of alkali metals to their ions requires comparatively less amount of energy. As a result, alkali metals have low values of ionization potential.

Question 36. Which member in each of the following pairs has a lower value of ionization potential? F, Cl S, Cl Ar, K O Kr, Xe Na, Na+.
Answer:

Cl has lower ionization enthalpy than F because electrons of 2p-orbital in F are more strongly attracted by the nucleus than the 3p-electrons in Cl.

(Note that effective nuclear charge on the outermost electrons is nearly the same for both and Cl).

S has lower ionization enthalpy than Cl because the size of S is greater than that of Cl and also the nuclear charge of S is less than that of CL

K has a lower ionization potential than Ar as the outermost shell is filled with electrons in Ar. On the other hand, K can attain a stable configuration like the inert gas Arby with the loss of only an electron.

Xe has lower ionization enthalpy than Kr because ionization enthalpy decreases on moving down a group in the periodic table.

Na (ls22s22p63s1) has lower ionization enthalpy’ than Na+(ls22s22p6), because the former can attain inert gas-like electronic configuration by loss of 1 electron from its outermost shell, whereas the latter attains unstable electronic configuration (Is22s22p5) by loss of one electron from its outermost shell.

Question 37. Why is the value of electron-gain enthalpy negative?
Answer:

When an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom to form a negative gaseous ion, energy’ is usually liberated, i.e., the enthalpy change in the process is usually negative. So
electron-gain enthalpies of most elements have negative values.

Question 38. Calculate the energy (in kj unit) required to convert all sodium atoms into sodium ions, present in 3.45 mg of its vapor. [I.P of sodium 490kJ mol-1 ]
Answer:

Sodium atoms present \(=\frac{3.45}{23} \times 10^{-3}=1.5 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~mol}\)

Na(g) + = Na+(g) + e;I = 490 kj. mol-1.

The energy required for the ionization of 1 mol sodium is 490 kj.

The energy required for ionization of 1.5 X 10-4 mol sodium is 490 X 1.5 X 10-4 kj = 73.5J

Question 39. A, B, C, and D are four elements of the same period, of which A and B belong to s -block. B and D react together to form B+D-. C and D unite together to produce a covalent compound, CD2. What is the formula of the compound formed by A and D ? 0 What is the nature of that compound? What will be the formula and nature of the compound formed by the union of B and C
Answer:

Since A and B are s -block elements of the same period, one of them is an alkali metal of group IIA while the other is an alkaline earth metal of group IIA.

B and D react to form anionic compound B+D. Therefore, B is a monovalent alkali metal of group IA, and D is a monovalent electronegative element of group VIIA.

Hence, the other element A of the s -the block is a bivalent alkaline earth metal of group-IIA. C and D combine to produce the covalent compound CD2. Hence, C is a bivalent electronegative element belonging to group VIA.

The formula of the compound formed by the combination of electropositive bivalent element A with electronegative monovalent element D is AD2

The compound is ionic or electro valent in nature.

A compound formed by reactions of electropositive monovalent element B with electronegative bivalent element C will have the formula B2C. It is an electrovalent or ionic compound.

Periodicity in Properties Class 11 Chemistry Solutions

Question 40. What changes in the following properties are observed while moving from left to right along a period & from top to bottom in a group? Atomic volume, Valency, Electronegativity, Oxidising, and reducing powers.
Answer:

On moving from left to right across a period, atomic volume first decreases and then increases. In a group, atomic volume increases with an increase in atomic number down a group.

Oxygen-based valency goes on increasing from left to right over a period but does not suffer any change down a group.

Electronegativity increases gradually from left to right across a period while it decreases down a group with an increase in atomic number.

Oxidizing power increases from left to right across a period and decreases from top to bottom in a group.

On the other hand, reducing power decreases from left to right in a period but it increases from top to bottom in a group.

 

PSEB 11th Class Biology Kingdom Monera Multiple Choice Questions

Kingdom Monera Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. From competitive examinations

Find out the comet match:

  1. Aids- bacillus anthesis
  2. Syphilis- treponema pallidum
  3. Gonorrhea- Leishmania donovani
  4. Urethritis- enthameaobea gingivalis

Answer: 2. Aids- bacillus anthesis

Question 2. Bt gene occurs in

  1. Bacillius thurigensis
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
  4. Rhixobium leguminosarum

Answer: 1. Bacillius thurigensis

Question 3. In which bacterial reproduction phage lake part?

  1. Conjugation
  2. Transformation
  3. Binary fission
  4. Transduction.

Answer: 4. Transduction.

Read And Learn More Class 11 Biology MCQs

Question 4. Mvcoplasmas arc not sensitive to :

  1. Penicillin
  2. Streptomycin
  3. Erythromycin
  4. Neomycin.

Answer: 1. Penicillin

PSEB 11th Class Biology Kingdom Monera MCQs

PSEB 11th Class Biology Kingdom Monera Multiple Choice Questions

Question 5. Mitotic apparatus is absent in:

  1. Green algae
  2. Fungi
  3. Bacteria
  4. Higher plants.

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 6. Teichoic acid is present in the cell wall of:

  1. Bacteriophage
  2. Mycoplasma
  3. Nostoc
  4. Pneumococcus.

Answer: 4. Pneumococcus.

Question 7. Disease pneumonia is due to:

  1. Virus
  2. Bacterium
  3. Cyanobacterium
  4. Protozoan.

Answer: 2. Bacterium

Question 8. Bacteria cannot survive in highly salted pickles because:

  1. Bacteria do not get light for photosynthesis
  2. The pickle does not contain nutrients necessary for bacteria to live
  3. Salt inhibits reproduction
  4. Bacteria get plasmolysed and thus killed.

Answer: 4. Bacteria get plasmolysed and thus killed.

Question 9. A non-legume, symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacterium is:

  1. Rhizobium
  2. Azotobacter
  3. Frankia
  4. Clostridium.

Answer: 3. Frankia

Question 10. What is true for photolithotrophs?

  1. Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from organic compounds
  2. Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from inorganic compounds
  3. Obtain energy from organic compounds
  4. Obtain energy from inorganic compounds.

Answer: 2. Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from inorganic compounds

Question 11. The difference in gram + ve and gram – ve bacteria is due to:

  1. Cell wall
  2. Cell membrane
  3. Ribosome
  4. Cytoplasm.

Answer: 1. Cell wall

Question 12. What is true for archaebacteria?

  1. All halophiles
  2. All photosynthetic
  3. All fossils
  4. Oldest living beings

Answer: 4. Oldest living beings

Question 13. Which of the following is not produced by in the lactose medium?

  1. Thiognlnclosidc transacetylase
  2. Lactose dehydrogenase
  3. Lactose permease
  4. I-galactosidase.

Answer: 2. Lactose dehydrogenase

Kingdom Monera Multiple Choice Questions PSEB Class 11

Question 14. The cell wall of a bacterium is composed of:

  1. Cellulose
  2. Chitinous
  3. Cellulose
  4. Chitin
  5. Mureill.

Answer: 4. Mureill.

Question 15. Plasmids occur in-

  1. Chromosomes
  2. Viruses
  3. Bacteria
  4. Chloroplasts.

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 18. Milk is changed into curd by:

  1. Acetobacter acetic
  2. Bailius megatherium
  3. Xanthomonas citri
  4. None.

Answer: 4. None.

Question 19. Match the names of antibiotics listed under column 1 with their sources given under column 2. Select the correct alphabet of two columns:

Kingdom Monera Question 16 Match the terms

  1. A—p, b—r, c—s, d—q
  2. A—r, b—p, c—s, d—q
  3. A—s, b—p, c—r, d—q
  4. A—r, b—s, c—p, d—q.

Answer: 4. A—r, b—s, c—p, d—q.

Question 17. Which one of the following organisms may respire in the absence of oxygen?

  1. Azotobacter
  2. Clostridium
  3. Rhizobium
  4. Lactobacillus.

Answer: 2. Clostridium

Question 18. Milk is changed into cured by

  1. Acetobacter aceti
  2. Bacillus megatherium
  3. Xanthomonas citri
  4. None.

Answer: 4. None.

Kingdom Monera Multiple Choice Questions PSEB Class 11

Question 19. Bacteria prepare food by oxidation of:

  1. N2
  2. N03
  3. Oxygen
  4. Glycogen.

Answer: 4. Glycogen.

Question 20. Extrachromosomal material of bacteria is found in:

  1. Circular dna
  2. Extrachromosomal dna
  3. Chromosomal dna
  4. Plasmid.

Answer: 4. Plasmid.

Question 23. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Diatoms produce basodiopores
  2. Hererocycytes occur in Boston
  3. Fronds develop in bryophtes
  4. Multiciliates sperms occur in angiosperms

Answer: 2. Hererocycytes occur in Boston

Question 24. Mnrein does not occur in the wall of :

  1. Diatoms
  2. Nostoc
  3. Eubacteria
  4. Blue-green algae.

Answer: 1. Diatoms

Question 25. Bacterial flagella are made up of

  1. Chlorine
  2. Fluorine
  3. Iodine
  4. Bromine.

Answer: 1. Chlorine

Question 26. Bacterial flagella are made up of :

  1. Protein
  2. Amines
  3. Lipids
  4. Carbohydrates.

Answer: 1. Protein

Question 27. Bacterium pseudomonas is useful as it can :

  1. Transfer genes from one plant to another
  2. Fix atmospheric nitrogen
  3. Produce several antibiotics
  4. Decompose a variety of organic compounds.

Answer: 2. Fix atmospheric nitrogen

Question 28. Bacterial ribosomes are :

  1. 70S
  2. 60 S
  3. 80 S
  4. 50 S.

Answer: 1. 70S

Question 29. The iron-chelating substance is produced by a growth-promoting rhizobacterium:

  1. Rhizobium japonicum
  2. Azospirillium
  3. Pseudomonas putida
  4. Aspergillus.

Answer: 2. Azospirillium

PSEB Class 11 Biology Chapter Kingdom Monera MCQs

Question 30. Which one is not correctly matched :

  1. Streptomyces—antibiotic
  2. Serratia—drug addiction
  3. Rhizobium—biofertilizer
  4. Spirulina—single cell protein.

Answer: 2. Serratia—drug addiction

Question 31. Azolla has a symbiotic relationship with :

  1. Chlorella
  2. Anabaena
  3. Nostoc
  4. Tolypothrix.

Answer: 2. Anabaena

Question 32. The best well-studied batching-plant relationship is that of:

  1. Cymmbactcrinl symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
  2. Modulation in snbanla stem
  3. Tiall formation by ay, what Merriam
  4. Growth stimulation by phosphate bacteria.

Answer: 3. Tiall formation by ay, what Merriam

Question 33. Auxosporcs and oocysts are formed respectively by

  1. Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria
  2. Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
  3. Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
  4. Some cyanobacteria and many diatoms.

Answer: 1. Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria

Question 34. Barophilic prokaryotes:

  1. Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes
  2. Occur in water containing high concentrations of barium hydroxide
  3. Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
  4. Readily grow and divide in seawater enriched in any soluble salt of barium.

Answer: 1. Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes

Question 35. For retting of jute, the fermenting microbe used is:

  1. Helicobacter pylori
  2. Mesophilic bacteria
  3. Streptococcus lactis
  4. Butyric acid bacteria.

Answer: 4. Butyric acid bacteria.

Question 36. Gram-ve bacteria possess peptidoglycan and an extra layer of:

  1. Protein
  2. Lipoprotein
  3. Lipopolysaccharide
  4. Lipid.

Answer: 3. Lipopolysaccharide

PSEB Class 11 Biology Chapter Kingdom Monera MCQs

Question 37. Which of the following is a pathogenic bacterium of the colon

  1. Balantidium coli
  2. Entamoeba coli
  3. Enterobium vermicularis
  4. Escherichia coli.

Answer: 4. Escherichia coli.

Question 38. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are associated with

  1. Malvaceae
  2. Gramineae
  3. Cruciferae
  4. Leguminasae

Answer: 4. Leguminasae

Question 39. Which of the following contain polyhedral bodies?

  1. Bacteria
  2. Nostoc
  3. Mycoplasma
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Nostoc

Question 40. Inoculation against malaria is out of the question because:

  1. It does not produce antibodies and antitoxins
  2. Plasmodium produce antitoxins
  3. Plasmodium produces minute bodies
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. It does not produce antibodies and antitoxins

Question 41. Bacteria are considered plants because they :

  1. Have chlorophyll
  2. Have stomata
  3. Have rigid cell walls that are green in color

Answer: 3. Have rigid cell walls that are green in color

Question 42. Curing olten leaves is brought about by the activity of:

  1. Viruses
  2. Fungi
  3. Bacteria
  4. Myconhizn

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Question 43. In prokaryotes. Chromatophotvs atv

  1. Specialized granules responsible for the coloration of cells
  2. Structure is responsible for organizing the shape of (be organism
  3. Inclusion bodies lying five inside the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities
  4. Internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria

Answer: 4. Internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in photosynthctic bacteria.

Question 44. Which of the following is a flowering plant with modules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing microorganisms?

  1. Crotalaria juncea
  2. Cycos revoluta
  3. Ciccr arietinwn
  4. Casuarina equisetifolia.

Answer: 4. Casuarina equisetifolia.

Question 45. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. Both azotobacter and rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
  2. Cyanobacteria such as anabasine and nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in the soil.
  3. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
  4. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.

Answer: 4. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.

Question 46. Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong?

  1. They are pleomorphic
  2. They are sensitive to penicillin
  3. They cause diseases in plants
  4. They are also called people.

Answer: 2. They are sensitive to penicillin

Question 47. Which one of the following is an example of a negative feedback loop in humans

  1. Secretion of tears alters the falling of sand particles into the eye.
  2. Salivation of the mouth at the sight of delicious food.
  3. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
  4. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.

Answer: 4. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.

PSEB Class 11 Biology Chapter Kingdom Monera MCQs

Question 48. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea, and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea?

  1. Archaca completely differs from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
  2. Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
  3. Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
  4. Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Answer: 4. Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Question 49. Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a :

  1. Sulfur rock
  2. Cattle yard
  3. Polluted stream
  4. Hot spring.

Answer: 2. Cattle yard

Question 50. Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside the vegetative part of :

  1. Cycas
  2. Equisetum
  3. Psilotum
  4. Pinus

Answer: 1. Cycas

Question 51. Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?

  1. Eubacteria
  2. Blue-green algae
  3. Saprophytic fungi
  4. Archaebacteria

Answer: 4. Archaebacteria