PSEB 12th Class Biology Evolution Of Man Multiple Choice Questions

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Question 1. What evidence suggests that chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than other hominid species?

  1. DNA from sex chromosomes only
  2. Chromosome morphology only
  3. Fossil remains
  4. DNA of both autosomes and sex chromosomes.

Answer: 4. DNA of both autosomes and sex chromosomes.

Question 2. The cranial cavity of Australopithecus was:

  1. 650-700 cm³
  2. 350-450 cm³
  3. 1050-1150 cm³
  4. 1400-1450 cm³

Answer: 2. 350-450 cm³

Question 3. Tuang baby is:

  1. Dryopithecus
  2. Australopithecus
  3. Peking man
  4. Piltdown man.

Answer: 2. Australopithecus

Read and Learn More 12th Class Biology MCQs

Question 4. Which one of the following apes is found in India:

  1. Gorilla
  2. Gibbon
  3. Chimpanzee
  4. Orangutan.

Answer: 1. Gorilla

PSEB 12th Class Biology Evolution Of Man MCQs

Question 5. Most primary hominids that appeared were:

  1. Pleistocene
  2. Early Miocene
  3. Late Miocene and early Pliocene
  4. Late Pliocene.

Answer: 3. Late Miocene and early Pliocene

PSEB 12th Class Biology Evolution Of Man Multiple Choice Questions

Question 6. There are two opposing views about the origin of modern man. According to one view Homo erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modem man. A study of variations of DNA however suggested the African origin of modern man. What kind of observation of DNA variation could suggest this?

  1. Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
  2. Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa
  3. Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
  4. Similar variations in Africa and Asia.

Answer: 1. Greater variation in Africa than in Asia

Question 7. The last common ancestor between the African apes and hominids lived during the epoch:

  1. Oligocene
  2. Pliocene
  3. Millocene
  4. Pleistocene.

Answer: 2. Pliocene

Question 8. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modem (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?

  1. Binocular vision
  2. Increasing cranial capacity
  3. Upright posture
  4. Shortening of jaws.

Answer: 2. Increasing cranial capacity

Question 9. The cranial capacity of Neanderthal man was about:

  1. 1450 cc
  2. 900 cc
  3. 650 cc
  4. 1100 cc.

Answer: 1. 1450 cc

Question 10. What is the correct sequence of human evolution:

  1. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens sapiens
  2. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens sapiens → Homo erectus
  3. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens sapiens
  4. Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens sapiens.

Answer: 1. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens sapiens

Question 11. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 cc in:

  1. Homo erectus
  2. Ramapithecus
  3. Homo habilis
  4. Homo neanderthalensis.

Answer: 4. Homo neanderthalensis.

Evolution Of Man Multiple Choice Questions PSEB Class 12

Question 12. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modem man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?

  1. Upright posture
  2. Shortening of jaws
  3. Binocular vision
  4. Increasing brain capacity.

Answer: 4. Increasing brain capacity.

Question 13. Which of the following is used as an atmospheric pollution indicator?

  1. Lepidoptera
  2. Lichens
  3. Lycopersicon
  4. Lycopodium.

Answer: 2. Lichens

Question 14. The theory of spontaneous generation states that:

  1. Life arose from living forms only
  2. Life can arise from both living and non-living
  3. Life can arise from non-living things only
  4. Life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living.

Answer: 3. Life can arise from non-living things only

Question 15. Animal husbandry and plant breeding programs are examples of:

  1. Reverse evolution
  2. Artificial selection
  3. Mutation
  4. Natural selection.

Answer: 2. Artificial selection

Question 16. Palaeontological evidence for evolution refers to the.

  1. Development of embryo
  2. Homologous organs
  3. Fossils
  4. Analogous organs.

Answer: 3. Fossils

Question 17. The bones of forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetahs, and man are similar in structure, because:

  1. One organism has given rise to another
  2. They share a common ancestor
  3. They perform the same function
  4. They have biochemical similarities.

Answer: 2. They share a common ancestor

Evolution Of Man Multiple Choice Questions PSEB Class 12

Question 18. Analogous organs arise due to:

  1. Divergent evolution
  2. Artificial selection
  3. Genetic drift
  4. Convergent evolution.

Answer: 4. Convergent evolution.

Question 19. (p+q)² = p² + 2pq + q² = 1 represents an equation used in:

  1. Population genetics
  2. Mendelian genetics
  3. Biometrics
  4. Molecular genetics.

Answer: 3. Biometrics

Question 20. Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of:

  1. Adaptive radiation
  2. Transduction
  3. Pre-existing variation in the population
  4. Divergent evolution.

Answer: 3. Pre-existing variation in the population

Question 21. Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of moving from:

  1. Land to water
  2. Dryland to wetland
  3. Fresh water to seawater
  4. Water to land.

Answer: 4. Water to land

Question 22. Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because

  1. The young ones are left on their own
  2. The young ones are protected by a thick shell
  3. The young ones are protected inside the mother’s body and are looked after they are bom leading to more chances of survival
  4. The embryo takes a long time to develop.

Answer: 3. The young ones are protected inside the mother’s body and are looked after they are bom leading to more chances of survival

Question 23. Fossils are generally found in:

  1. Sedimentary rocks
  2. Igneous rocks
  3. Metamorphic rocks
  4. Any type of rock.

Answer: 1. Sedimentary rocks

Question 24. For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles arc 0.7 and 0.3, respectively. The expected frequency of MN-blood group-bearing organisms is likely to be.

  1. 42%
  2. 49%
  3. 9%
  4. 58%.

Answer: 1. 42%

Question 25. Which type of selection is industrial melanism observed in moths? Bistort Bulgaria:

  1. Stabilizing
  2. Directional
  3. Disruptive
  4. Artificial.

Answer: 2. Directional

Question 26. The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is:

  1. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Home sapiens → homo habilis
  2. Home ercctus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
  3. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
  4. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens.

Answer: 3. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens

Question 27. Which of the following is an example of connecting link species?

  1. Lobe fish
  2. Dodo bird
  3. Seaweed
  4. Tyrannosaurus rex.

Answer: 1. Lobe fish

Question 28. Match the scientists listed under column ‘A’ with ideas listed in column ‘B’.

  1. 1-A; 2-D; 3-B; 4-C
  2. 1-D; 2-A; 3-B; 4-C
  3. 1-B; 2-D; 3-C; 4-A
  4. 1-D; 2-C; 3-B; 4-A.

Answer: 2. 1-D; 2-A; 3-B; 4-C

Question 29. In 1953 S.L. Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave experimental evidence for the origin of the first form of life from pre-existing non-living organic molecules. The primitive earth conditions created include:

  1. Low temperature, volcanic storms, an atmosphere rich in oxygen
  2. Low temperature, volcanic storms, reduced atmosphere
  3. High temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing atmosphere
  4. High temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3, etc.

Answer: 4. High temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3, etc.

Class 12 Biology Chapter Evolution Of Man MCQs

Question 30. Variations during mutations of meiotic recombinations are:

  1. Random and directionless
  2. Random and directional
  3. Random and small
  4. Random small and directional.

Answer: 1. Random and directionless

Question 31. The essence of Darwinian theory about evolution is:

  1. The rate of appearance of new forms linked to the life cycle
  2. Natural selection
  3. Artificial selection
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 32. Darwin’s theory of natural selection was influenced by the work of:

  1. Herbert Spencer
  2. Thomas Malthus
  3. Lamarck
  4. I. A. Oparin.

Answer: 2. Thomas Malthus

Question 33. Natural selection is based on certain observations which are factual. They are:

  1. Limited natural resources
  2. Populations are stable
  3. Members of the population vary in characteristics that are inherited.
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 34. Key concepts of Darwinian theory are:

  1. Branching descent
  2. Natural selection
  3. Inheritance of all traits
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 35. The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and spreading to other areas is called:

  1. Adaptive radiation
  2. Convergent evolution
  3. Parallel evolution
  4. Co-evolution.

Answer: 1. Adaptive radiation

Question 36. Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the universe. This universe is how many years old?

  1. 200 million
  2. 20 million
  3. 300 billion
  4. 20 billion.

Answer: 4. 20 billion.

Question 37. Big Bang theory explains the origin of the universe. Did life appear on earth about how many years ago?

  1. 500 million after the formation of the earth
  2. 4 billion years ago
  3. 4.5 billion years ago
  4. Both (1) and (2) correct

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2) correct

Class 12 Biology Chapter Evolution Of Man MCQs

Question 38. Analogous structures are a result of:

  1. Convergent evolution
  2. Divergent evolution
  3. Microevolution
  4. Coevolution.

Answer: 1. Convergent evolution

Question 39. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is affected by

  1. Gene flow and genetic drift
  2. Mutation and genetic recombination
  3. Natural selection
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 40. Dinosaurs became extinct during which period:

  1. Jurassic
  2. Cretaceous
  3. Tertiary
  4. Triassic.

Answer: 3. Tertiary

Question 41. The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived near East and Central Asia between:

  1. 100,000 – 40,000 years ago
  2. 75,000 – 10,000 years ago
  3. 18,000 years ago
  4. 10,000 years ago.

Answer: 1. 100,000 – 40,000 years ago

Question 42. The biggest dinosaurs about 20 ft in height were:

  1. Ichthyosaurs
  2. Tyratmosams
  3. Stegosaur
  4. Triceratops.

Answer: 2. Tyratmosams

Question 43. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck (1744-1829) a French biologist was an advocate of evolution during the pre-Darwin era.
  2. Lamarck could recognize several lines of descent or lineage of modern species
  3. Lamarck could arrange the fossils in chronological series of order from older to younger form
  4. All are correct.

Answer: 4. All are correct.

Question 44. A new mutation spreads from one population to another by means of:

  1. Removed bottlenecks
  2. Emigrants and immigrants
  3. Mutation pressure
  4. Cross overs.

Answer: 3. Mutation pressure

Question 45. Genetic drift occurs when a few individuals of a species colonize in land. The particular phenomenon is:

  1. Bottleneck effect
  2. The founder effect
  3. Associative mating
  4. Random mating.

Answer: 2. The founder effect

Question 46. A plant population that reproduces by self-pollination is an extreme example of:

  1. The bottleneck effect
  2. The founder effect
  3. Rapid gene flow
  4. Assortative mating.

Answer: 4. Assortative mating.

Question 47. Lumpers tend to:

  1. Separate the same population into different species or group
  2. Combine population into single species or group
  3. Recognize the basic species
  4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Combine the population into single species or group

PSEB 12th Class Biology Human Evolution MCQs with Answers

Question 48. Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciation develops without a:

  1. Geographical barrier
  2. Barrier to mating
  3. Change in chromosome number
  4. The barrier to gene flow.

Answer: 1. Geographical barrier

Question 49. Which of the following is the most rapid method of speciation?

  1. Polyploidy
  2. Sympatric
  3. Allopatric
  4. Isolation.

Answer: 1. Polyploidy

Question 50. Common bread wheat is thought to have arisen through:

  1. Parapatric speciation
  2. Allopatric speciation
  3. Polyploidy and cross-fertilisation
  4. Ecological separation.

Answer: 4. Ecological separation.

Question 51. Which of the following originated during the Miocene epoch in Africa and Asia?

  1. Ramapithcus
  2. Dryopithecus
  3. Sivapithcus
  4. Parapithecus.

Answer: 2. Dryopithecus

Question 52. Homo habilis, a tool maker having a cranial capacity of? 735 cc and bipedal gait existed during which epoch?

  1. Pleistocene
  2. Miocene
  3. Pliocene
  4. Oligocene.

Answer: 1. Pleitostocene

Question 53. The most recent products of animal evolution are:

  1. Birds
  2. Mammal
  3. Snakes and crocodiles
  4. Lizards and turtles.

Answer: 2. Mammal

Question 54. Apes have:

  1. Arms shorter than legs
  2. Arms longer than legs
  3. 900-1500 Cc cranial capacity
  4. Strictly herbivorous feeding habit.

Answer: 2. Arms longer than legs

PSEB 12th Class Biology Human Evolution MCQs with Answers

Question 55. Cromagnon man had:

  1. Highest cranial capacity
  2. Lived in caves and was a hunter
  3. The ability to make tools and weapons
  4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 56. Which fossil man had a cranial capacity almost equal to modern man?

  1. Peking man
  2. Java ape man
  3. Neanderthal man
  4. Sivapithecus.

Answer: 3. Neanderthal man

Question 57. A cranial capacity of about 1200 cc belongs to

  1. Java man
  2. Peking man
  3. Cromagnon man
  4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 2. Peking man

Question 58. Who discovered Java man?

  1. Leaky
  2. Levis
  3. Dubois
  4. Oparin.

Answer: 3. Dubois

Question 59. Handyman is:

  1. Cromagnon man
  2. Neanderthal man
  3. Homo habilis
  4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Homo habilis

Question 60. The evolution of man came after Dry epithets

  1. Ramapithecus
  2. Proconsul
  3. Shivapilhecus
  4. Australopithecus.

Answer: 1. Ramapithecus

Question 61. Which of the following is closest to man?

  1. Neanderthal
  2. Cromagnon
  3. Homo credits
  4. Homo habilis.

Answer: 2. Cromagnon

Question 62. Which of the following is not a feature of apes?

  1. Absence of tail
  2. Arboreal habitat
  3. Narrow pelvis
  4. Occipital condyles lateral in position.

Answer: 4. Occipital condyles lateral in position.

PSEB 12th Class Biology Human Evolution MCQs with Answers

Question 63. Which of the following is not a feature of present-day man?

  1. More hair
  2. Distinct chin
  3. Bipedal gait
  4. Steep and high brow.

Answer: 1. More hair

Question 64. Which of the following is not a feature of Australopithecus?

  1. Simian gap present
  2. The forward position of the foramen magnum
  3. Basin-like pelvic girdle
  4. Erect posture with four feet height.

Answer: 1. Simian gap present

Question 65. Homo areas show:

  1. Upright bipedal locomotion
  2. 700-800 cranial capacity
  3. Forehead present
  4. Rounded skull.

Answer: 1. Upright bipedal locomotion

Question 66. Six races i.e. Negroid, Casusacoid. Mongaloid, Australcoid, Polynesian, and Bushman were recognized by

  1. May (1950)
  2. Leaky
  3. Mansell (1962)
  4. Colbert (1995).

Answer: 3. Manell (1962)

Question 67. Parapithecus was discovered by:

  1. Gregory
  2. Colbert
  3. Lewis and Leaky
  4. Dubois.

Answer: 2. Colbert

Question 68. Australopithecus African (African ape man) was discovered by

  1. Leaky
  2. Dubois
  3. Raymon Dart
  4. Lewis and Leaky.

Answer: 3. Raymon Dart

Question 69. Gregor discovered Homo sapiens fossils during the late Pleistocene period showed the following characters except:

  1. Broad pelvic basin
  2. Toolmaker
  3. Face orthognathic
  4. Cranial capacity 1200-1500 cm³.

Answer: 4. Cranial capacity 1200-1500 cm³

Question 70. Hominids include:

  1. Homo sapiens
  2. Chimpanzee ana gorilla
  3. Orangutan and gibbons
  4. Lemurs

Answer: 1. Homo sapiens

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